Chapter 1
Interpretation of Topographical Maps
Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star
Short
Answer questions
Question 1
What is a 'map'?
Answer
A map is defined as a
representation of the earth's surface or a part of it, showing natural or
man-made features, drawn to scale on a flat surface.
Question 2
State the essential features of a
map.
Answer
The essential features of a map
are:
- Title
- Scale
- Direction
- Grid System
- Conventional Signs
- Key or Legend
Question 3
What do you mean by the 'key' of
a map?
Answer
Key of a map explains the meaning
of the symbols that are used in the map. It is also known as legend.
Question 4
Into how many categories have the
maps been classified?
Answer
On the basis of size, maps can be
classified into two categories:
- Large scale maps (Cadastral
maps and Topographical maps)
- Small scale maps (Atlas maps
and Wall maps)
On the basis of content and
purpose, maps can be classified into three types-
- Physical maps
- Political maps
- Thematic maps
Question 5
What are the topographical maps?
Answer
A topographical map shows the
surface of the earth in detail. These maps are drawn on a number of sheets
where each sheet depicts the details of only one particular part of the whole
area. these sheets are joined to give a complete picture of the entire area.
Topographical maps show physical
features like valleys, hills, peaks etc., as well as man-made features like
roads, railways, canals etc.
Question 6
What is the National Grid
Reference (NGR)?
Answer
Grid lines are imaginary lines
drawn on a survey map in red colour. The origin of the Grid is a point
south-west of the map. The 'National Grid Reference' is used for indicating the
correct position of a particular feature on the map.
Structured
Questions
Question 1
Give the four-figure grid
reference of the following from the given map extract:
- Two settlements having a
Post office.
- Two settlements having a
dispensary.
- The settlement having a
Siphon.
- The settlement having the
confluence of the main river and Dior Nadi.
- The settlement with the
words Brackish.
Answer
- 6131, 6233
- 6234, 6032
- 6231
- 5930
- 6232
Question 2
Give the six-figure grid
reference of the following from the given map extract:
- Police Station.
- 4r.
- Post office at Malgaon.
- Surveyed tree at Posintra.
Answer
- 625338
- 609310
- 615312
- 600320
Chapter 2
Contours
Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star
Give the
terms used in contours for each of the following
Question 1
A number preceded by a dot.
Answer
Spot height
Question 2
The numerical difference between
two contour lines.
Answer
Vertical interval
Question 3
A number preceded by a triangle.
Answer
Triangulation point
Question 4
The difference between maximum
and minimum height in areas of steep slope.
Answer
Relative height
Question 5
The accurate height of some point
marked above the ground.
Answer
Spot height
Describe
the following terms
Question 1
Contour Interval
Answer
Contour interval means the
difference of height between two consecutive contours. For example, if one
thick contour shows the height 300 metres and the next thin contour depicts the
height of 320 metres. Then, the contour interval is 20 metres.
Question 2
Vertical Interval
Answer
The vertical distance between any
two contour lines is called vertical interval.
Question 3
Horizontal Equivalent
Answer
The actual distance between two
points on two contour lines is called horizontal equivalent.
Question 4
Gradient
Answer
The ratio between the vertical
height and the horizontal distance of a slope of land measured along the ground
is called gradient.
Explain
how would you distinguish between the following on the basis of contours
Question 1
Gentle Slope and Steep Slope
Answer
|
Gentle
Slope |
Steep Slope |
|
In gentle slopes, the change of elevation is gradual. Normally about
1:25 gradient of elevation is gradual. |
Steep slope suddenly slopes up or down. |
|
The contours are placed wide apart in gentle slope. |
For steep slopes, the contours are drawn close to one another. |
Question 2
Scarp and Dip
Answer
|
Scarp |
Dip |
|
A scarp has a narrow top with a steep slope. |
A dip has a narrow top with a gentle slope. |
|
The contour lines are closer to each other. |
The contour lines are spread far apart. |
|
It has a gradient of 1:3. |
It has a gradient of about 1:12. |
Question 3
Ridge and Water Divide
Answer
|
Ridge |
Water Divide |
|
It is a long and narrow highland sloping steeply downwards on its
sides. |
A line which separates two adjacent drainage basins is known as water
divide. |
|
Contours showing a ridge are elongated and are closely spaced. |
The side on which the ridge is steeper, the contours are drawn closely
together, whereas the side on which the ridge is gentle, the contours are
drawn far apart. |
Short Answer Questions
Question 1
What is a 'contour'?
Answer
Contour lines are imaginary lines
which are drawn on a map to join places having the same height above the mean
sea level.
Question 2
Give two points of difference
between Bench Mark and Spot Height.
Answer
|
Bench
Mark |
Spot Height |
|
These are marks etched on stone or a building to indicate the accurate
height determined by surveys. |
It refers to the height of a point on the ground above the mean sea
level. |
|
It is written as "BM" followed by a number. |
It is represented by a dot followed by a number on the map. |
Question 3
What do you understand by V.I.
and H.E.?
Answer
V.I. stands for vertical
interval. It is the vertical distance between any two contour lines.
H.E. stands for horizontal
equivalent. It is the actual distance between two points on two contour lines.
Question 4
What advantages do contours have
over hill-shading and hachuring?
Answer
Hill shading and hachuring only
give an impression of the slope but do not indicate the heights of the land
above sea level, whereas the contours show both impression of the slope as well
as the heights of the land above the sea level.
Question 5
Why two contours never intersect
each other?
Answer
Two contours never intersect each
other because each line represents a separate elevation, and we can't have two
different elevations at the same point.
Structured
Questions
Question 1
What is meant by relief?
Answer
Relief refers to actual
configuration of land which includes its altitude and slope. The relief
features found on the earth's surface include mountains, valleys, hills, plains
and plateaus.
Question 2
State the three methods used to
show the earth's relief features.
Answer
The three methods used to show
the earth's relief features are-
- hachures
- hill shading
- contours
Question 3
What do the contour lines
represent?
Answer
Contour lines are imaginary lines
joining places which have the same height above mean sea level.
Question 4
How do contour lines show
different slopes of land?
Answer
The contour lines are shown by
brown colour as thick brown lines and thin brown lines. Contour lines show:
1. Elevation of land: The height of a contour is
indicated by figures inserted in a break in the line.
2. Steepness of its slope: When the contours are very
close, they represent steep slopes. When they are farther apart, they represent
gradually increasing slopes. Absence of contour lines indicate that the land is
flat i.e., a low land.
3. Shape of land at various
heights: The
contour lines indicate the shape of land. For example, almost circular contours
whose value decreases inside represent a lake.
Chapter 3
Scales and Direction
Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star
Short
Answer Questions
Question 1
How is direction shown on a map?
Answer
The direction is shown on the map
with the help of North-South line . The arrow indicating up is considered as
north and the arrow which indicates down, depicts south direction.
The line perpendicular to the North South line represent the east-west
direction. The line on the right depicts east direction and the line towards
the left depicts the west direction.
Question 2
What do you mean by R.F.?
Answer
It is a method of representing
scale on the map. It is expressed as a fraction showing the ratio of a unit
distance on the map and the distance measured in the same units on the ground.
Question 3
What is the advantage of R.F.?
Answer
The main advantage of R.F. is
that it is only a fraction and is independent of any particular unit of
measurement. It can be converted into any particular unit of measurement and
has universal application.
Question 4
Explain Magnetic declination with
the help of a diagram.
Answer
The angle between the true
north-south line and the magnetic north-south line is known as magnetic
declination.
Question 5
Why are 'True North' and 'Grid
North' different?
Answer
'True North' and 'Grid North' are
different because of the spherical shape of the earth.
Question 6
Convert the following numerical
scale (R.F.) into statement scales:
(a) 1:1000
(b) 1:50,000
(c) 1:5,00,000
Answer
(a) R.F. = 1:1000 = 1 cm to 1000
cm
(Since 100 cm = 1 m, therefore 1000 cm = 10 m)
Hence, the scale is 1 cm to 10 m.
(b) R.F. = 1:50,000 = 1 cm to
50,000 cm
(Since 100 cm = 1 m, therefore 50,000 cm = 500 m)
Hence, the scale is 1 cm to 500 m.
(c) R.F. = 1:5,00,000 = 1 cm to
5,00,000 cm
(Since 1,00,000 cm = 1 km, therefore 5,00,000 cm = 5 km)
Hence, the scale is 1 cm to 5 km.
Question 7
Convert the following into numerical
scales (R.F):
(a) 10 centimetres to kilometre
(b) 1 centimetre to 20 kilometres
(c) 2 cm to 5 km
(d) 6 inch to 1 mile
(e) 1 inch to 2 1/2 miles
(f) 7 cm to 6.3 km
Answer
(a) The scale is 10 cm to 1 km =
10 cm to 1,00,000 cm
(Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 10 / 1,00,000
R.F. = 1:10,000
(b) The scale is 1 cm to 20 km =
1 cm to 20,00,000 cm
(Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 1 / 20,00,000
R.F. = 1:20,00,000
(c) The scale is 2 cm to 5 km = 2
cm to 5,00,000 cm
(Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 2 / 5,00,000
R.F. = 1:2,50,000
(d) The scale is 6 inch to 1 mile
= 6 inch to 63,360 inches
(Since 1 mile = 63,360 inches)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 6 / 63,360
R.F. = 1:10,560
(e) The scale is 1 inch to 2.5
miles = 1 inch to 1,58,400 inches
(Since 1 mile = 63,360 inches)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 1 / 1,58,400 R.F. = 1:1,58,400
(f) The scale is 7 cm to 6.3 km =
7 cm to 6,30,000 cm
(Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 7 / 6,30,000
R.F. = 1:90,000
Distinguish
between
Question 1
Statement Scale and Graphic Scale
Answer
|
Statement
Scale |
Graphic Scale |
|
Scale is stated in words. We make a statement about it. |
Scale is represented by a straight line divided into equal parts to
show what these marking represent on the actual ground. |
|
If the map is reduced or enlarged, a new scale needs to be worked out. |
This scale stands valid even when the map is reduced or enlarged. |
Question 2
True North and Magnetic North
Answer
|
True
North |
Magnetic North |
|
True north is the direction indicated by the north star. |
The north to which the compass needle points is called magnetic north. |
|
True north is a fixed point on the globe. |
Magnetic north is not a fixed. |
Answer the following questions
Question 1(a)
What is a Scale? Name the main
methods of representing the scale of a map.
Answer
The scale of a map denotes the
proportion that the distance between any two points on the map bears to the
distance between the same two points on the surface of the earth.
The main methods of representing
the scale of a map are-
- A statement
- Graphic or Linear scale
- Representative Fraction
Question 1(b)
Convert the following statements
into R.F.
(a) 25 cm on the map = 5 km on
ground.
(b) 2½ inches on the map = 5 miles on ground.
(c) 7 cm on the map = 63000 metres on ground.
(d) 5 cm = 500 metres.
(e) 15 cm = 6 km.
(f) 10 cm =1 km.
(g) 12 cm = 72000 metres.
Answer
(a) The scale is 25 cm to 5 km =
25 cm to 5,00,000 cm
(Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 25 / 5,00,000
R.F. = 1:20,000
(b) The scale is 2½ inches to 5
miles = 2.5 inches to 3,16,800 inches
(Since 1 mile = 63,360 inches)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 2.5 / 3,16,800
R.F. = 1:1,58,400
(c) The scale is 7 cm to 63000 m
= 7 cm to 63,00,000 cm
(Since 1 m = 100 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 7 / 63,00,000
R.F. = 1:9,00,000
(d) The scale is 5 cm to 500 m =
5 cm to 50,000 cm
(Since 1 m = 100 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 5 / 50,000
R.F. = 1:10,000
(e) The scale is 15 cm to 6 km =
15 cm to 6,00,000 cm
(Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 15 / 6,00,000
R.F. = 1:40,000
(f) The scale is 10 cm to 1 km =
10 cm to 1,00,000 cm
(Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 10 / 1,00,000
R.F. = 1:10,000
(g) The scale is 12 cm to 72000 m
= 12 cm to 72,00,000 cm
(Since 1 m = 100 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 12 / 72,00,000
R.F. = 1:6,00,000
Question 2
Convert the following
representative fractions into statements:
(i) 1: 63360 (to show miles).
(ii) 1: 1000000 (to show kilometres).
(iii) 1: 100 (to show metres).
(iv) 1: 10 (to show metres).
(v) 1: 200,000 (to show kilometres).
(vi) 1: 50 (to show metres and centimetres).
Answer
(i) R.F. = 1:63360
That means 1 inch on the map = 63360 inches on the ground
The scale is 1 inch to 1 mile
(Since 1 mile = 63,360 inches)
(ii) R.F. = 1:10,00,000
That means 1 cm on the map = 10,00,000 cm on the ground
The scale is 1 cm to 10 km
(Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm)
(iii) R.F. = 1:100
That means 1 cm on the map = 100 cm on the ground
The scale is 1 cm to 1 m
(Since 100 cm = 1 m)
(iv) R.F. = 1:10
That means 1 cm on the map = 10 cm on the ground
The scale is 10 cm to 1 m
(Since 1 m = 100 cm)
(v) R.F. = 1:2,00,000
That means 1 cm on the map = 2,00,000 cm on the ground
The scale is 1 cm to 2 km
(Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm)
(vi) R.F. = 1:50
That means 1 cm on the map = 50 cm on the ground
The scale is 10 cm to 5 m
(Since 1 m = 100 cm)
Question 4
The distance between New Delhi
Station and Safdarjung Enclave bus stop is 20 km. On the map of Delhi, it has
been shown by a line of 3.5 cm. Draw the linear scale of the map and calculate
the R.F.
Answer
According to the given question,
The scale is 3.5 cm to 20 km = 3.5 cm to 20,00,000 cm
(Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 3.5 / 20,00,000
R.F. = 1:571428.57
Question 5
On the map of India the
cartographer forgot to draw the scale of the map. The student who knows the
distance between Meerut and Delhi (70km), was asked to complete the scale. How
will the student draw the scale if he measures the distance between Delhi and
Meerut on the map to be 5 cm? Give the procedure, draw the scale and find out
the R.F.
Answer
According to the given question,
The scale is 5 cm to 70 km = 5 cm to 70,00,000 cm
(Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 5 / 70,00,000
R.F. = 1:14,00,000
Study the
given map extract and answer the following questions
Question 1
Find the area in sq. km. of the
area enclosed within the Eastings 63 to 66 and Northings 30 to 33.
Answer
Number of complete squares = 9
Since each grid square measures 1 km x 1 km, the area of the area enclosed
within the Eastings 63 to 66 and Northings 30 to 33 will be 9 sq. km.
Question 2
Find the compass direction of the
following:
(i) Gulabganj from Pamera
(ii) Malgaon from Sirori
Answer
(i) Gulabganj lies to the
south-east of Pamera.
(ii) Malgaon lies to the
south-west of Sirori.
Chapter 4
Map Reading and Interpretation
Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star
Short
Answer Questions
Question 1
State what is indicated by the
following symbols about the land use:
(a) Tanks and canals
(b) Open scrub
(c) Stony waste
(d) Causeway
Answer
(a) Presence of tanks and canals
indicates that the land is used for agriculture.
(b) Presence of open scrub
indicates that the land is used for sheep and goat rearing.
(c) Presence of stony waste
indicates that the land is uncultivable.
(d) Presence of causeway
indicates a dry river and desert regions which receive only seasonal rainfall.
Question 2
Where are the thickly settled
areas located in a village?
Answer
The thickly settled areas located
over fertile plains and on wide river valleys.
Question 3
What does a dendritic drainage
pattern indicate about the land?
Answer
A dendritic drainage pattern
indicates that the land has soft surface rock material suitable for
agriculture.
Question 4
How can the climate of a place be
inferred from the topo-sheet?
Answer
Climate of a place can be
inferred from the latitudinal extent of the area covered by the toposheet and
the type of vegetation found there. For example, the climate of a place 10° N
latitude will be warmer than the place at 35° N latitude.
Vegetation type also gives an
indication of the climate of a place. For example, rain forests are found in
the heavy rainfall areas, where the temperature is between 25°C and the average
humidity exceeds 77%. Similarly, the presence of scanty growth of cactus,
thorny bushes and grass suggest arid and semi-arid climate.
Question 5
What are the factors that affect
settlements in an area?
Answer
The factors that affect
settlements in an area are as follows-
Physical factors:
- Body of water
(transportation routes, water for drinking and farming)
- Flat land (easy to build)
- Fertile soil (for crops)
- Forests (timber and
housing)influence the settlements in an area
Human factors:
- People who share a common
language, religion or culture
- Social network or supports
- Quality of life
- Employment
Match the
following
Question 1
|
Evidences |
Occupation |
|
Settlement near the main road |
Agriculture |
|
Parks |
Forestry |
|
Coast, lakes |
Cattle grazing |
|
Yellow patch |
Fishery |
|
Meadows |
Entertainment |
|
Green patch |
Trade |
Answer
|
Evidences |
Occupation |
|
Settlement near the main road |
Trade |
|
Parks |
Entertainment |
|
Coast, lakes |
Fishery |
|
Yellow patch |
Agriculture |
|
Meadows |
Cattle grazing |
|
Green patch |
Forestry |
What do
the following diagrams indicate?
Question 1
What does the following diagram
indicates? Write short notes on the features as indicated by the diagram.
Answer
The diagram shows a dispersed
settlement. It is a pattern of rural settlement in which most of the population
lives in farms, houses and cottages scattered over a large area. This
settlement is associated with regions of high land, poor soils and an abundance
of available sources of water. It is also associated with large farms and
sparse population.
Question 2
What does the following diagram
indicates? Write short notes on the features as indicated by the diagram.
Answer
The diagram shows a nucleated
settlement. It is a form of rural settlement in which farms and other buildings
are clustered together, often around some central feature like a church or
police chowki etc. This pattern is encouraged by the need for defence, the
availability of water supply at particular locations and the development of
modern means of transport.
Chapter 6
Location, Extent and Physical Features
Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star
Answer
the following questions
Question 1(a)
Give two differences between the
Eastern Coastal Plains and the Western Coastal Plains.
Answer
|
Eastern
Coastal Plains |
Western Coastal Plains |
|
They are a product of emergence due to deposits. |
They are a product of submergence of land. |
|
They have a linear coastline. |
They are indented with many natural ports. |
Question 1(b)
What kind of mountains are the
Himalayas? By what name are the offshoots of the Eastern Himalayas known?
Answer
Himalayas are active fold
mountains. The offshoots of the eastern Himalayas are known as Darjeeling
Himalaya, Sikkim Himalaya, Bhutan Himalaya, and Arunachal Himalaya.
Question 1(c)
State how the Northern Plains
were formed.
Answer
The Northern Plains were formed
by the deposits brought in by the three major rivers- Indus, Ganga and
Brahmaputra and their tributaries. Alluvium was deposited at the foothills of
the Himalayas for millions of years. These deposits are now the fertile
Northern Plains.
Question 1(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) The rivers of south India are
less suitable for irrigation than the rivers of north India.
(ii) The Peninsular Plateau of
India is considered to be a part of Gondwanaland hundreds of millions of years
ago.
(iii) The Narmada and Tapi do not
form deltas.
Answer
(i) The rivers of south India are
less suitable for irrigation than the rivers of north India because rivers of
north India are perennial as they are snow fed but the rivers of south India
are seasonal as they are rain fed.
(ii) The Peninsular Plateau of
India is considered to be a part of Gondwanaland hundreds of millions of years
ago because due to the tectonic movements, the Indo Australian plate drifted
after being separated from the Gondwana land towards the north. Moreover, the
rocks that make up the plateau match those in Africa in age, type and the layer
sequence in which they occur.
(iii) The Narmada and Tapi do not
form deltas because they flow through hard rocks and are not able to form
distributaries before they enter the Arabian sea.
Question 2(a)
Give two differences between the
Plains of North India and the Coastal Plains.
Answer
|
Plains
of North India |
Coastal Plains |
|
These plains are located in the mainland of India, towards the south
of Himalayas. |
These plains are located along the coastline of southern India. |
|
Farming is the main occupation of the people. |
Fishing is the main occupation of the people in the coastal region. |
Question 2(b)
Name two rivers of the Peninsular
Plateau that flow towards the Arabian Sea. Name two rivers that flow into the
Bay of Bengal.
Answer
Two rivers of the Peninsular
Plateau that flow towards the Arabian Sea are Narmada and Tapi. Two rivers that
flow into the Bay of Bengal are Mahanadi and Godavari.
Question 2(c)
(i) Name the four parts of the
Peninsular Plateau of India.
(ii) Name the landforms that form
the boundaries of the Peninsular Plateau.
Answer
(i) The four parts of the
Peninsular Plateau of India are-
- The Central Plateaus
- The Eastern Plateaus
- The Kathiawar and Kutch
- The Deccan Plateau
(ii) The landforms that form the
boundaries of the Peninsular Plateau are-
- Aravali range in the
north-west
- Bundelkhand plateau in the
extreme north
- Western ghats in the west
- Eastern ghats in the east
Question 2(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Less land is available for
agriculture on the West Coast than on the East Coast.
(ii) Access through the Western
Ghats is difficult.
(iii) The Peninsular Plateau of
India is rich in mineral resources.
Answer
(i) Less land is available for
agriculture on the West Coast than on the East Coast because eastern coastal
plains are wider than the Western Coastal Plains. Moreover, the deltas formed
by rivers like Kaveri, Krishna and Godavari are very fertile and useful for
agriculture.
(ii) Access through the Western
Ghats is difficult because they have a high elevation of about 900-1600m. They
are continuous and can be crossed through passes only.
(iii) The Peninsular Plateau of
India is rich in mineral resources as it is covered with basaltic lava and lava
sheets which are rich in minerals.
Question 3(a)
Give two differences between
Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats.
Answer
|
Eastern
Ghats |
Western Ghats |
|
They rise gently from the east coast. |
They rise steeply from the west coast. |
|
The hills are discontinuous. |
The hills are continuous. |
Question 3(b)
Name the source of the river
Ganga. Where does this river enter the plains?
Answer
Gangotri glacier in the Himalayas
is the source of the river Ganga. This river enters the plains at Haridwar,
Uttarakhand.
Question 3(c)
(i) Name any two left bank
tributaries of the Ganga.
(ii) Is Ganga a perennial river?
Give reason.
Answer
(i) Two left bank tributaries of
the Ganga are Gomti and Ghaghra.
(ii) Yes, Ganga is a perennial
river as it has water flowing throughout the year. It is fed by rain in the
rainy season, melting of ice in summer season and snow in winter season.
Question 3(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) The Northern Plains of India
are one of the most densely populated regions of the world.
(ii) The Deccan Plateau is an
example of a dissected plateau.
(iii) The rivers of South India
are easier to tap for power than the rivers of north India.
Answer
(i) The Northern Plains of India
are one of the most densely populated regions of the world as they are endowed
with fertile soil, numerous rivers and favourable climate.
(ii) The Deccan Plateau is an
example of a dissected plateau because several seasonal rivers flow across the
Deccan plateau.
(iii) The rivers of South India
are easier to tap for power than the rivers of north India as the rivers are
marked by waterfalls and have less silt as they erode igneous rocks.
Question 4(a)
Give two differences between
rivers of Northern India and the rivers of Southern (Peninsular) India.
Answer
|
Rivers
of Northern India |
Rivers of Southern India |
|
They are perennial as they are snow-fed. |
They are seasonal as they are rain fed. |
|
These rivers are longer. |
These rivers are comparatively shorter. |
Question 4(b)
Name the only significant river
of the Rajasthan Plains. Name the largest river island in the world.
Answer
The only significant river of the
Rajasthan Plains is Luni. The largest river island in the world is Majuli.
Question 4(c)
(i) How is cultivation carried
out in the Rajasthan Plains?
(ii) Name the fertile tracts of
these plains.
Answer
(i) Cultivation is done in small
patches in this area with the water provided by small streams which originate from
the Aravali during the rainy season.
(ii) The fertile tracts of these
plains are known as Rohi.
Question 4(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Most of the rivers in South
India flow into the Bay of Bengal.
(ii) The Rann of Kutch is not
cultivated.
(iii) The Rajasthan Plains are an
area of inland drainage.
Answer
(i) Most of the rivers in South
India flow into the Bay of Bengal because the peninsular plateau gently slopes
from west to east. Hence, the rivers flow from higher altitude to lower
altitude and fall into Bay of Bengal.
(ii) The Rann of Kutch is not
cultivated because it is a marshy lowland covered with salty water.
(iii) The Rajasthan Plains are an
area of inland drainage because the rivers of the area do not have sufficient
water to reach the sea and dry up or disappear into the sand.
Chapter 7
Climate
Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star
Answer
the following questions
Question 1(a)
Name the type of climate
prevailing over India. Mention any two factors responsible for it.
Answer
India has a tropical monsoon type
of climate. Two factors responsible for this type of climate are-
- The Himalayas
- Varied Relief
Question 1(b)
State two important
characteristic features of the Monsoon rainfall in India.
Answer
Two important characteristic
features of the Monsoon rainfall in India are-
- Reversal of wind system.
- Uneven distribution of
rainfall over the year.
Question 1(c)
(i) What is 'Monsoon'?
(ii) Name the place in India
which receives the heaviest rainfall.
Answer
(i) The word Monsoon is derived
from the Arabic language which means Mansoon or weather. Monsoon is also used
to denote the reversal of winds.
(ii) Cherrapunji and Mawsynram in
Meghalaya receive the heaviest rainfall.
Question 1(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Mumbai is warmer than Kanpur
in December.
(ii) Punjab gets rain in winter.
(iii) The Indo-Gangetic Plain
gets some rainfall in the months of December and January.
Answer
(i) Mumbai is warmer than Kanpur
in December because Mumbai is located near the sea and hence it experiences
moderate climate throughout the year. Kanpur experiences continental type of
climate where summers are extremely hot and winters are extremely cold.
(ii) Punjab gets rain in winter
season due to some weak temperate cyclones from the Mediterranean Sea.
(iii) The Indo-gangetic plain
gets some rainfall in the month of December and January because of the western
disturbances, which originate in West Asia and in the regions near the
Mediterranean sea. These westerly depressions bring winter rainfall over the
Indo-Gangetic Plains.
Question 2(a)
Name two factors which affect the
climate of a place.
Answer
Two factors which affect the
climate of a place are-
- Distance from sea or ocean
- Altitude of the place
Question 2(b)
Mention two characteristics of
the South-West Monsoon.
Answer
Two characteristics of the
South-West Monsoon are-
- This season lasts from June
to September.
- Winds blow from sea to land
and are moisture laden winds.
Question 2(c)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) When the Malabar coast is
receiving heavy rainfall in July, the Tamil Nadu coast is comparatively dry.
(ii) The Northern Plains of India
have a Continental type of climate.
(iii) Central Maharashtra
receives less rainfall than Western Maharashtra.
Answer
(i) When the Malabar coast is
receiving heavy rainfall in July, the Tamil Nadu coast is dry because it lies
in the rain shadow region of Arabian sea branch and Bay of Bengal is parallel
to the coast.
(ii) The Northern Plains of India
have a continental type of climate because it is away from the moderating
influence of the sea. Thus, the summers are extremely hot and winters are
extremely cold.
(iii) Central Maharashtra lies in
the rain shadow region whereas coastal Maharashtra is on the windward side of
Western Ghats. Since places situated in the rain shadow region receive less
rainfall, Central Maharashtra receives less rainfall than Western Maharashtra.
Question 2(d)
Study the climatic data given
below and answer the questions that follow:
|
Month |
Jan |
Feb |
Mar |
Apr |
May |
Jun |
Jul |
Aug |
Sep |
Oct |
Nov |
Dec |
|
Temperature °C |
23.1 |
24.8 |
26.5 |
29.3 |
32 |
32.8 |
33.1 |
32.1 |
30.5 |
29.3 |
28.7 |
26.1 |
|
Rainfall cm |
15.3 |
10.1 |
0.3 |
0.1 |
1.3 |
4.5 |
6.1 |
10.2 |
10.5 |
20.1 |
16.8 |
19.0 |
(i) Calculate the annual rainfall experienced by the station.
(ii) Suggest a name of this
station, giving a reason for your answer.
(iii) Name the season during
which rainfall is the heaviest.
Answer
(i) The annual rainfall
experienced by the station is 114.3 cm.
(ii) The station is Tamil Nadu as
the temperature remains moderate throughout the year and the rainfall is
heaviest during the winter season.
(iii) The season during which
rainfall is the heaviest is retreating monsoon.
Question 3(a)
State two points of difference in
climate between the northern and the southern zone of India due latitude.
Answer
Two points of difference in
climate between the northern and the southern zone of India due latitude are-
- The northern zone has cold
winter season and hot summer season while the southern zone is warmer than
the north ut does not have a clear-cut winter season.
- The northern zone doesn't
have the mid day sun almost vertically overhead during any part of the
year, while the southern zone has the mid day sun almost vertically
overhead at least twice a year.
Question 3(b)
State briefly the impact of water
bodies on the climate in coastal areas.
Answer
The water bodies have a great
impact on the climate in coastal areas. Water bodies act as a major source of
moisture to the summer monsoons and bring heavy rainfall to the whole area.
Such areas experience moderate climate, neither too hot nor too cold.
Question 3(c)
(i) What are Jet Streams?
(ii) How do they influence the
climate of India?
Answer
(i) Jet streams are cold fast
blowing winds that develop in the upper layers of the atmosphere.
(ii) They influence the climate
of India as the westerly jet stream prevails over the North Indian Plains
during the winter months, while the easterly jet stream steers the tropical
depression over India. These depressions play a significant role in the
distribution of monsoon rainfall in the subcontinent. The highest rainfall
occurs along the track of these depressions.
Question 3(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Variations in the type of
climate in different regions of India.
(ii) Most parts of India receive
rainfall between June and September.
(iii) South-West Monsoon withdraw
from northern India in October.
Answer
(i) India has a varied climate due
to the presence of various relief features like mountains, deserts, presence of
seas etc. Further the large latitudinal extent, altitude, presence of many
mountain ranges and nearness to the oceans results in different climatic
conditions in different regions.
(ii) Most parts of India receive
rainfall between June and September because the differential heating of land
and sea during summer season causes the monsoon winds to drift towards the
subcontinent.
(iii) South-West Monsoon withdraw
from northern India in October because the monsoon trough of low pressure over
the Ganga plains becomes weaker due to the apparent southward movement of the
sun. The low pressure trough is gradually replaced by high pressure.
Question 4(a)
How does El-Nino affect the
climate of India?
Answer
El-Nino increases the surface
temperature of the sea and affects the movement of monsoon winds in the Indian
Ocean and causes weak drought-like situation in the Indian sub continent.
Question 4(b)
State two characteristic features
of North-East Monsoon.
Answer
Two characteristic features of
North-East Monsoon are-
- These winds blow from
December to February.
- These winds blow from land
to sea.
Question 4(c)
Mention three important features
of rainfall in India.
Answer
Three important features of
rainfall in India are-
- There is rainfall over three
months and the rest of the year is mostly dry. Seventy percent of annual
rainfall occurs in the rainy season.
- The rains are mainly of
relief type. The windward slopes of the mountains get more rainfall than
the leeward side.
- Only a small portion of the
rainfall is received from sources other than the monsoon, like cyclonic
rainfall and convectional rainfall.
Question 4(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Pune receives less rainfall
than Mumbai.
(ii) Tropical cyclones bring
heavy rainfall but temperate cyclones bring light rainfall.
(iii) Kerala has a tropical
climate while Punjab has a continental climate.
Answer
(i) Pune receives less rainfall
than Mumbai because Mumbai lies on the windward side of the Western Ghats while
Pune lies on the leeward side. Since places lying on the leeward side receive
less rainfall, Pune receives less rainfall than Mumbai.
(ii) A tropical cyclone is mainly
formed due to the development of a low pressure area ove the sea, this results
in high humidity and temperature which causes heavy rainfall. However, in a
temperate cyclone wind speed is low and all sectors of the cyclone have
different temperatures which is followed by continuous light rainfall for many
days.
(iii) Kerala has a tropical
climate while Punjab has a continental climate because Kerala is situated near
water bodies while Punjab is situated in the interior of the subcontinent.
Influences by the sea, Kerala experiences maritime climate, neither too hot nor
too cold while Punjab experiences continental type of climate, very hot in
summer and very cold in winter.
Question 5(a)
Distinguish between 'Burst of
Monsoon' and 'Break of Monsoon'.
Answer
|
Burst
of Monsoon |
Break of Monsoon |
|
The sudden violent onset of rainfall in the first week of June is
termed as the burst of monsoon. |
When the South-west monsoon fails to bring rainfall for two or more
weeks and there is a dry period in the rainy season, it is called break of
monsoon. |
Question 5(b)
Define:
(i) Western Disturbances
(ii) Mango Showers
Answer
(i) Western Disturbances —
A characteristic feature of the cold weather season is the inflow of
depressions from the west and the north-west. These low pressure systems are
called western disturbances. They originate in West Asia and the regions near
the Mediterranean Sea. They travel eastwards across Iran and Pakistan and reach
India during the winter season. They bring the much needed winter rains over
the plains and snowfall in the mountains.
(ii) Mango Showers —
Mango showers are the pre-monsoon showers in the Indian states of Karnataka,
Kerala, Konkan and Goa that help in the ripening of mangoes. These showers are
also important for tea and coffee plants.
Question 5(c)
(i) Name two regions which get
very little rain from the Summer Monsoon.
(ii) Name any two local winds
which blow in India during the summer season.
Answer
(i) Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan get
very little rain from the Summer Monsoon.
(ii) Two local winds which blow
in India during the summer season are Loo and Kalbaisakhi.
Question 5(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) The monsoon rain is unevenly
distributed over India.
(ii) Excessive cold in north
India during winter season.
(iii) Most of the India remains
dry during the North-East Monsoon season.
Answer
(i) The monsoon rain is unevenly
distributed over India because most parts of India receive relief rainfall,
therefore windward sides always receive more rainfall than the leeward side.
Some places like Aravali and Coromandel coast lie parallel to south west
monsoon winds, hence, are not able to obstruct these wind and receive very
little rainfall.
(ii) Excessive cold in north
India during winter season because north India is far from the sea and the
equator. Hence, it experiences continental type of climate — cold winters and
hot summers.
(iii) Most of the India remains
dry during the North-East Monsoon season because north-east trade winds blow
from land to sea and hence, do not carry moisture necessary for rainfall.
Question 6(a)
What is meant by the season of
'Retreating Monsoon'?
Answer
During the months of
October-November, the south-west monsoon winds become weaker and start to
retreat from the skies of North India. This phase of the monsoon is known as
the retreating monsoon.
Question 6(b)
Name the months in which
Retreating Monsoon rain is experienced.
Answer
Retreating Monsoon rain is
experienced in the months of October and November.
Question 6(c)
(i) Name the seasons during which
the North-East Trade Winds dominate.
(ii) How do these winds affect
the climate of India?
Answer
(i) The North-East Trade Winds
dominate during the winter season.
(ii) North-east trade winds blow
from land to sea, hence, most parts of the country remain dry. These winds may
cause some amount of rainfall on the Coromandel coast. The nights are extremely
cold while the days are pleasantly warm.
Question 6(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) The northern plains of India
do not freeze in winter.
(ii) In spite of Aravali Range,
Rajasthan receives scanty rainfall.
(iii) Patna receives heavier rain
than Delhi.
Answer
(i) The northern plains of India
do not freeze in winter because the Himalayas form a climatic barrier
separating the Indian subcontinent from the rest of Asia. They prevent the cold
Siberian winds from entering India.
(ii) The state of Rajasthan
receive scanty rainfall because it lies in the rain-shadow region of the
Aravali Mountains. The Aravali Hills run parallel to the Arabian Sea branch,
and thus do not form any barrier to intercept the winds. The winds thus passes
through Rajasthan without causing any rainfall.
(iii) Patna receives heavier rain
than Delhi because Patna is on the eastern side as compared to Delhi and places
situated on the eastern side receive heavier rainfall than the places situated
on the western side of the country.
Question 7(a)
Mention the different sources of
rain in Punjab and Tamil Nadu during the winter season.
Answer
During the winter season, Punjab
receives rainfall from temperate cyclones that originate from the Mediterranean
Sea. These cyclones are not of great intensity. Tamil Nadu receives rainfall
from the north east monsoon winds that blow over the Bay of Bengal and bring
winter rainfall to the state.
Question 7(b)
What is meant by 'rainshadow
area'? Give an example and state the mountains which are responsible for the
rainshadow area.
Answer
A rain shadow area is an area of
dry land that lies on the leeward side of a mountain. High mountains act as
barriers for cold if they are high enough and lie in the path of rain – bearing
winds. The leeward side of the mountains remains dry.
The western ghats in India are an
example of mountains causing rain shadow area. The moisture laden winds from
the Arabian Sea branch shed most of its moisture on the western slopes of the
western ghats due to which by the time they reach the eastern slopes of western
ghats the winds have less moisture and this side receives very less rainfall.
For example, Mahabaleshwar situated on the Western side of western ghats,
receives 250 cm of rainfall whereas Pune, only a few km away, receives less
than 70 cm of rainfall.
Question 7(c)
State the benefits that are
derived from the local winds that blow in summer in the following areas:
(i) Kerala
(ii) West Bengal
Answer
(i) During the summer season, the
local hot winds blowing in Kerala are called Mango Showers. They bring rainfall
which is very important for the ripening of the mangoes grown there.
(ii) During the summer season,
the local winds blowing in West Bengal are called Kalbaisakhi. They bring
rainfall which is important for jute and rice crops.
Question 7(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Western Rajasthan receives no
rain from the Arabian Sea branch of the South-West Monsoon winds.
(ii) Mangalore is not cold even
in the month of December.
(iii) Even in summer Shimla is
cooler than Delhi.
Answer
(i) Western Rajasthan receives no
rain from the Arabian Sea branch of the South-West Monsoon winds because the
Arabian Sea branch of the South west monsoon blows parallel to the Aravali
hills. Since the moisture-bearing winds do not strike the mountains, they do
not cause any rainfall in Western Rajasthan.
(ii) Mangalore is situated along
the Western Coast of India. Therefore, it experiences moderate impact of land
breezes and sea breezes all through the year. This keeps the weather of
Mangalore moderate i.e. neither too hot nor too cool. Hence, it is not cold
even in the month of December.
(iii) Shimla is cooler than Delhi
in summer because it is located at a higher altitude than Delhi and the
temperature decreases with the height at a rate of 1°C for every 165 m of
ascend.
Question 8(a)
Give two points of difference
between the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch of South-West
Monsoon Winds.
Answer
|
Arabian
Sea branch of South-West Monsoon Winds |
Bay of Bengal branch of South-West Monsoon Winds |
|
It enters Indian landmass after blowing over a vast open sea. During
this period, it collects a lot of moisture. |
It travels a shorter distance and carries less moisture. |
|
It hits against the Western Ghats as soon as it blows over the land. |
It has to travel a long distance over land before it hits against the
mountains. |
Question 8(b)
Name any two states that receive
rain in January-February from North-East Monsoons.
Answer
The eastern coast of Tamil Nadu
and Andhra Pradesh receives much rainfall during the winter season through
north-east monsoons.
Question 8(c)
(i) What causes the winter rain
along Coromandel coast?
(ii) Name a state which gets
sufficient rainfall from the winter monsoon.
Answer
(i) North East Trade winds cause
the winter rain along Coromandel coast.
(ii) Tamil Nadu gets sufficient
rainfall from the winter monsoon.
Question 8(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Western part of Rajasthan is
a desert region.
(ii) Kochi has a lower annual
range of temperature than Agra.
(iii) The Northern plains and
Punjab receive winter cyclonic rain in winter.
Answer
(i) The western part of Rajasthan
is a desert because the Aravali range lies parallel to the moisture laden winds
coming from the Arabian Sea. Since they do not obstruct the winds, it does not
rain in western Rajasthan.
(ii) Kochi has a coastal location
while Agra is located away from the sea. Due to the influence of the moist
winds from the sea, Kochi experiences a moderate climatic condition throughout
the year whereas Agra has extreme temperature conditions resulting in high
annual range of temperature than Kochi.
(iii) The Northern plains and
Punjab receive winter cyclonic rain in winter due to the western disturbances
entering the Indian sub-continent from the North-west.
Question 9(a)
Give two points of difference
between Tropical Cyclones and Temperate Cyclones.
Answer
|
Tropical
Cyclones |
Temperate Cyclones |
|
These are tropical depressions originating in the Bay of Bengal caused
by the local variations of heat and moisture. |
These low pressure systems originate in West Asia and the regions near
the Mediterranean Sea. |
|
They are active in November and December. |
They are active between December and February. |
Question 9(b)
An Inter-School Football Match at
Visakhapatnam from November 1 to 3 had to be cancelled because of bad weather.
Give an explanation for this happening. Your explanation should provide the
technical name of this season in India, as well as the pressure conditions over
the Bay of Bengal.
Answer
An interschool Football Match at
Vishakapatnam from November 1 to 3 had to be cancelled because of the cyclones.
This is a season of retreating monsoon. During this season the low pressure
conditions of the land are transferred to the centre of the Bay of Bengal that
gives rise to cyclonic depressions.
Question 9(c)
(i) Name one region which gets
rainfall from the Retreating Monsoon.
(ii) Name two areas which get
more than 200 cm of rainfall in India.
Answer
(i) Tamil Nadu gets rainfall from
the Retreating Monsoon.
(ii) Meghalaya and Arunachal
Pradesh get more than 200 cm of rainfall in India.
Question 9(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Kanyakumari experiences an
equable climate.
(ii) Chennai has a lower annual
range of temperature than Lucknow.
(iii) Mangalore experiences more
rainfall than Mysore.
Answer
(i) Kanyakumari experiences
equable climate because it is located near the coast, and there is not much
difference between the temperatures during the summer and winter.
(ii) Chennai is located at lower
latitude and is closer to the equator as compared to Lucknow. Besides Chennai
is close to the sea so it experiences moderate climate whereas Lucknow is
located away from the sea and hence it experiences continental type of climate.
Therefore, Chennai has a lower annual range of temperature than Lucknow.
(iii) Mangalore lies on the
windward side of Western Ghats and Mysore lies on the leeward side of the
Western Ghats. Since areas located on the windward side receive more rainfall
than the areas located on the leeward side, Mangalore experiences more rainfall
than Mysore.
Question 10(a)
From where does the winter
showers in Western Uttar Pradesh and Punjab originate?
Answer
Winter showers in Western Uttar
Pradesh and Punjab originate from the weak temperate cyclones from the
Mediterranean Sea.
Question 10(b)
State the economic importance of
Kalbaisakhis in West Bengal and Assam.
Answer
Kalbaisakhis are of economic
importance in West Bengal and Assam because they bring rainfall in these
regions. This rainfall is quite beneficial for growing jute and rice in West
Bengal and tea in Assam.
Question 10(c)
Briefly explain the role of the
Himalayas in determining the climate of India during:
(i) the hot weather season
(ii) the southwest monsoon season
Answer
(i) The Himalayas form a climatic
barrier separating the Indian subcontinent from the rest of Asia. They prevent
the cold Siberian winds from entering the Indian region and from India becoming
a cold desert.
(ii) During the South West
Monsoon season, the Himalayas play an important role in determining the amount
of rainfall received by several places in the country. They act as a barrier to
the South West Monsoon winds coming from the Indian Ocean. These winds when
strike the mountains bring rainfall to the northern plains.
Question 10(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Chennai receives less rain
than Thiruvananthapuram although it has more rainy days.
(ii) Shillong gets less than 200
cm of rainfall in a year while Cherrapunji receives more than 1250 cm of
rainfall.
(iii) Jaipur has a higher annual
range of temperature than Mumbai.
Answer
(i) Since Thiruvananthapuram lies
on windward side of Western ghats therefore it receives heavy rainfall from
South West monsoon while Chennai lies on the leeward side and gets rainfall
from North East monsoon which is not as strong. Thiruvananthapuram also gets
some rain from the retreating Monsoon.
(ii) Cherrapunji lies on the
crest of the southern range of Khasi hills. It receives rain from the South
West Monsoon Bay of Bengal Branch as it is in the pathway of these winds.
Hence, it receives heavy rainfall. Shillong is located on the upper (leeward)
side of the Garo-Khasi-Jaintia hills, which is a rain shadow area and hence, receives
less than 200 cm of rainfall in a year.
(iii) Jaipur has a higher annual
range of temperature than Mumbai because Jaipur is situated in the northern
part of India, away from the sea. Hence, Jaipur experiences continental type of
climate, too hot in summer and too cold in winter. Mumbai, on the other hand,
is situated near the sea so it has a moderate type of climate, neither too hot
nor too cold.
Chapter 8
Soil Resources
Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star
Answer
the following questions
Question 1(a)
What is the soil? Name the four
types of soil.
Answer
Soil is the thin mixture of small
rock particles and rotting organic matter that covers the surface of the earth.
The four types of soil are-
- Alluvial soil
- Black soil
- Red soil
- Laterite soil
Question 1(b)
State any two factors responsible
for the formation of soil.
Answer
Two factors responsible for the
formation of soil are-
- deposition of sediments by
rivers
- weathering of lava rocks
Question 1(c)
(i) How can you say that soil has
evolved over millions of years?
(ii) Name one important
constituent of soil that adds fertility to the soil.
Answer
(i) Soil changes with age - As a
soil ages, it gradually starts to look different from its parent material. That
is because soil is dynamic. Its components—minerals, water, air, organic
matter, and organisms—constantly change.
(ii) One important constituent of
soil that adds fertility to the soil is humus.
Question 1(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) The colour of alluvium soil
varies in different areas.
(ii) Khadar is more fertile than
bhangar soil.
(iii) Black soil has a kind of
self-ploughing characteristic.
Answer
(i) The colour of alluvium soil
varies in different areas because its shades depend on the depth of deposition,
the texture of the materials and the time taken for maturity.
(ii) Khadar is more fertile than
bhangar soil as new layers are deposited year after year during monsoon floods.
(iii) Black soil has a kind of
self-ploughing characteristic because during dry season, it shrinks and
develops big cracks which help in air circulation. This characteristic causes a
kind of self-ploughing.
Question 2(a)
How are alluvial soils formed?
Answer
Alluvial soil is formed by the
sediments brought down by rivers. The rivers deposit very fine particles of
soil called alluvium in their plains during the course of their long journey.
The resultant alluvial soil is known as riverine soil.
Question 2(b)
Mention any two advantages of
alluvial soil.
Answer
Two advantages of alluvial soil
are-
- It is light and porous. So,
it is easily tillable.
- It is suitable for the
growth of a large variety of rabi and kharif crops.
Question 2(c)
(i) Why is soil a valuable
resource for India?
(ii) Why is black soil considered
a productive soil?
Answer
(i) Soil is a valuable resource
for India because agriculture is the main occupation in India. Soil supports
agriculture and it is the source of nutrients for many forms of life.
(ii) Black soil is considered a
productive soil because it has high moisture retention capacity and more clay
content which responds well to irrigation. It is suitable for the cultivation
of cotton, jowar, wheat, linseed, gram, citrus fruits and vegetables, tobacco
and sugarcane.
Question 2(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Different regions in India
have different kinds of soil for agriculture.
(ii) Alluvial soils vary in
texture.
(iii) Nearly all types of crops
grow well in riverine soils.
Answer
(i) Different regions in India
have different kinds of soil for agriculture because India is a vast region
with varied natural environment. Several physiographic regions and different
types of climate lead to the formation of different types of soil in different
regions.
(ii) Alluvial soils vary in
texture as in the upper reaches of the river valleys, the soil is dry, coarse,
porous and sandy. Soil particles are large and non-uniform but as we move
further down a river valley, the soil particles become smaller and more
uniform. They are more compact, less compact and more moist.
(iii) Nearly all types of crops
grow well in riverine soils because alluvial soil is a mixture of sand, clay
and silt. It is rich in mineral and easily tillable. Its composition makes it
suitable for the growth of a variety of crops.
Question 3(a)
Give two characteristic features
of the soil found most suitable for growing cotton and sugarcane in
Maharashtra.
Answer
Black soil is suitable for
growing cotton and sugarcane in Maharashtra. Its characteristics are-
- It is black in colour.
- It has high quantities of
lime, iron, magnesium and generally poor percentage of phosphorus,
nitrogen and organic matter.
Question 3(b)
Name one soil of volcanic origin
commonly found in India. Name one crop widely grown on this soil.
Answer
One soil of volcanic origin
commonly found in India is black soil. Cotton is widely grown on this soil.
Question 3(c)
(i) Name the process by which
Laterite soil is formed.
(ii) Mention one disadvantage of
Laterite soil.
Answer
(i) Laterite soil is formed as a
result of atmospheric weathering of rocks under the conditions of high rainfall
and temperature with alternate wet and dry periods. It is the residual soil
formed by leaching due to tropical rains.
(ii) One disadvantage of Laterite
soil is that it does not retain moisture and hence, is infertile.
Question 3(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Deltaic alluvium is more
fertile than the coastal alluvium.
(ii) Black soil is largely found
in the Deccan Trap region.
(iii) Black soil is often
referred to as Cotton soil or Regur soil.
Answer
(i) Deltaic alluvium is more
fertile than coastal alluvium as new layers are deposited year after year
during monsoonal floods. Also, deltaic alluvium is composed of fine silt and
clay whereas coastal alluvium is full of lime nodules.
(ii) Black soil is found in the
Deccan trap region because this region is formed due to the deposition of lava
produced by the volcanic eruption. When lava rocks breaks down into finer
particles due to weathering, it results in the formation of the black soil.
(iii) Black soil is often
referred to as Cotton soil or Regur soil because it is black in colour and is
suitable for cotton cultivation.
Question 4(a)
State the two sub-categories into
which alluvial soil is generally divided. Which one of them is superior to the
other? Why?
Answer
Two sub-categories into which
alluvial soil is generally divided are khadar and bhangar.
Khadar is superior to bhangar
because it is more fertile as new layers are deposited year after year during
monsoon floods.
Question 4(b)
What are the characteristics of
alluvial soil?
Answer
The characteristics of alluvial
soil are:
- Colour — The colour of
alluvial soil varies from light grey to deep black.
- Texture — In the upper reaches
of the valleys, the soil is dry, coarse, porous and sandy with large and
non-unifrom soil particles. In the lower reaches of the river valley, the
soil particles become smaller and more uniform and more moist.
- Minerals — It varies in nature
from sandy loam to clay. It is fertile with minerals like iron, magnesia,
alumina, potash and lime but poor in phosphorus, nitrogen and organic
matter.
Question 4(c)
(i) Which soil is suitable for
growing coffee in Karnataka?
(ii) Mention two main
characteristics of this soil.
Answer
(i) Laterite soil is suitable for
growing coffee in Karnataka.
(ii) Two main characteristics of
this soil are-
- It is red in colour due to
the presence of iron oxide.
- It is of a coarse texture,
soft and friable.
Question 4(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Laterite soil is useful for
construction purpose.
(ii) Soils of the Western Ghats
are affected by wind erosion.
(iii) The foothills of the
Himalayas are prone to excessive soil erosion.
Answer
(i) Laterite soils are used as a
building material because they become hard like iron when exposed to air. So,
they are used as a building material. Laterite soils are red in color due to
the presence of iron oxide. These soils are generally coarse in texture and
friable and porous in nature.
(ii) Soils of the Western Ghats
are affected by wind erosion because a large chunk of Western zone is arid or
semi-arid and wind erosion is a result of extreme form of soil degradation due
to aridity.
(iii) The foothills of the
Himalayas are prone to excessive soil erosion because the vegetation over there
is very less. There are not many plant or tree roots to hold the soil in place,
which makes the foothills of the Himalayas prone to excessive soil erosion.
Question 5(a)
Name two States in India where
Regur soil is found.
Answer
Regur soil is found in
Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh.
Question 5(b)
Give two points of difference
between Regur and Alluvial soil.
Answer
|
Regur
soil |
Alluvial soil |
|
It is formed by the weathering of lava rocks. |
It is formed by deposition of sediments by rivers. |
|
It is of black colour. |
Its colour varies from light grey to deep black. |
Question 5(c)
(i) Besides cotton, name the
crops which grow well in Regur soil.
(ii) In what way does Regur soil
help agriculture?
Answer
(i) Besides cotton, jowar, wheat,
linseed, gram, citrus fruits and vegetables, tobacco and sugarcane grow well in
Regur soil.
(ii) Regur soil helps agriculture
as it is very fertile. In any season, it has moisture stored in its subsoil.
This allows dry farming as well. In dry season, it forms big cracks which help
in air circulation, and causes a kind of self ploughing.
Question 5(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Jowar is grown in
Maharashtra.
(ii) Bajra is grown in Rajasthan.
(iii) Sugarcane is grown in Uttar
Pradesh.
Answer
(i) Jowar is grown in Maharashtra
because of the black regur soil which is rich in lime, potash-magnesium,
carbonates, allumina and calcium.
(ii) Bajra is grown in Rajasthan
because of the sandy soil found in this region. It is rich in soluble salts.
(iii) Sugarcane is grown in Uttar
Pradesh because the climatic conditions and presence of alluvial soil support
the cultivation of sugarcane.
Question 6(a)
Name two states where red soil is
found. Mention two important crops grown in this soil.
Answer
Two states where red soil is
found are Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. Two important crops grown in this soil are
rice and tobacco.
Question 6(b)
State two advantages of this type
of soil.
Answer
Two advantages of this type of
soil are-
- It is porous, loose and
aerated.
- It is ideal for dry farming.
Question 6(c)
(i) How is red soil formed?
(ii) How is this soil suitable
for dry farming?
Answer
(i) Red soil develops on old
crystalline rocks. Under prolonged weathering by rainfall, ancient crystalline
and metamorphic rocks of the peninsular plateau break up to form this soil.
(ii) This soil suitable for dry
farming as it is formed in areas with poor rainfall.
Question 6(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Black soil is also called
lava soil.
(ii) Red soil is red in colour
and its colour varies from yellow to brown.
(iii) Jute is cultivated in West
Bengal.
Answer
(i) Black soil is also called
lava soil because it is formed by the denudation of volcanic rocks.
(ii) Red soil is red in colour as
it contains large amounts f iron oxide. At several places, its colour changes
and it appears brown or grey. It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated
form.
(iii) Jute is cultivated in West
Bengal because the alluvial soil found in West Bengal is very fertile and
supports jute cultivation.
Question 7(a)
What is soil erosion? Name the
areas of soil erosion in India-
(i) for wind erosion
(ii) for running water erosion
Answer
The removal of the top soil cover
by water, wind and human activities is called soil erosion.
(i) Wind erosion affects the dry
areas of Rajasthan, Gujarat and Haryana
(ii) Running water erosion
affects the badlands of Chambal and Yamuna river, the piedmont zone of western
Himalayas, the Chotanagpur plateau, the Tapi-Sabarmati valley and the regur
soil area of Maharashtra.
Question 7(b)
Give two methods used to prevent
soil erosion.
Answer
Two methods used to prevent soil
erosion are-
- Terrace farming
- Shelter belts
Question 7(c)
(i) What is meant by soil
conservation?
(ii) State two measures to
conserve soil in hilly areas.
Answer
(i) Soil conservation means
prevention of soil loss from erosion or prevention of reduced fertility of soil
caused by over-use, acidification, salinisation or other types of soil
contamination.
(ii) Two measures to conserve
soil in hilly areas are-
1. Terrace farming- Terraces act as bunds and
prevent soil erosion by running water.
2. Contour Ploughing- Ploughing along contours on
a slope prevents soil erosion by running water.
Question 7(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Shelter belts reduce soil
erosion in arid areas.
(ii) Rural development will
influence soil conservation.
(iii) Water harvesting aids in
soil conservation.
Answer
(i) Shelter belts reduce soil
erosion in arid areas because planting trees in several rows checks wind
erosion.
(ii) Rural development will
influence soil conservation as in the programmes of rural development,
villagers are provided with the techniques of how to improve vegetative cover
and the steps required to be taken for preventing soil erosion. The farmers are
briefed about the farming methods (such as strip cropping and shelter belts) to
be followed to reduce soil erosion.
(iii) Water harvesting aids in
soil conservation as it reduces soil erosion and flood hazards by collecting
rainwater and reducing the flow of water which causes the removal of fertile
top soil.
Question 8(a)
How does deforestation lead to
soil erosion?
Answer
Deforestation exposes the soil to
water and wind, which leads to soil erosion.
Question 8(b)
State two methods of controlling
erosion of soil caused by running water.
Answer
Two methods of controlling
erosion of soil caused by running water are construction of dams and plugging
gullies.
Question 8(c)
Name two important agents of
erosion. For each, state one method of controlling the erosion caused.
Answer
Two important agents of erosion
are water and wind. Water erosion can be controlled by the construction of
dams. Wind erosion can be controlled by making shelter belts.
Question 8(d)
Explain briefly the need for
conservation of soil as a natural resource.
Answer
There is an acute need for
conservation of soil as a natural resource because of its adverse effects which
include the following-
- Loss of fertile topsoil with
its mineral content
- Lowering of the water table
- Drying of vegetation and
extension of arid lands leading to an increase in the frequency of drought
and floods
- Silting of river and canal
beds
- Recurrence of landslides
- Adverse effect on economic
prosperity and cultural development
Chapter 9
Natural Vegetation
Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star
Answer
the following questions
Question 1(a)
What is meant by natural
vegetation?
Answer
Natural vegetation refers to the
plant community which has grown naturally without any human assistance and has
not been disturbed over a long time, so as to allow its individual species to
adjust themselves fully to the climate and soil conditions.
Question 1(b)
Give two points of difference
between vegetation and forests.
Answer
|
Vegetation |
Forests |
|
Vegetation refers to the assemblage of plant species living in
association with each other in a given environmental set-up. |
Forest refers to a large tract of land covered with trees and
accompanying undergrowth of shrubs, herbs and sustaining thousands of life
forms. |
|
Vegetation includes only plant species. |
Forests sustain both plant and animals. |
Question 1(c)
(i) Name one area where tropical
rain forests are found.
(ii) Mention two main
characteristics of tropical rain forests.
Answer
(i) Tropical rain forests are
found on the western slopes of the Western Ghats.
(ii) Two main characteristics of
tropical rain forests are-
- Trees reach great heights of
more than 60 m.
- Since this region remains
warm and wet throughout the year, it has a luxuriant vegetation of all
kinds- trees, shrubs and creepers which give it a multi-layered structure.
Question 1(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) The Western Ghats are covered
with thick evergreen forests while the Eastern Ghats are coven by deciduous
forests.
(ii) Tropical evergreen forests
have tall trees and appear green all the year round.
(iii) Deciduous forests are
commercially most exploited.
Answer
(i) Evergreen forests are found
in areas of high temperature, having high annual rainfall. Western Ghats
receive more than 200 cms. of annual rainfall with an average annual
temperature between 25°C and 27°C. Similarly, deciduous forests are found in
areas with moderate rainfall and the eastern ghats receive annual rainfall
between 100 cm and 200 cm with mean annual temperature range of 24°C and 27°C.
Hence, the Western Ghats are covered with thick evergreen forests while the
Eastern Ghats are coven by deciduous forests.
(ii) Tropical evergreen forests
have tall trees as this region remains warm and wet throughout the year. Since
the trees do not have a fixed time to shed their leaves, to flower or for
fruition, the forest appears green all the year round.
(iii) Deciduous forests are
commercially most exploited because besides providing valuable timber, they
provide various other valuable products, like sandalwood, which are in great
demand in India and abroad.
Question 2(a)
Give two points of difference
between Tropical Evergreen and Tropical Deciduous Forests.
Answer
|
Tropical
Evergreen Forests |
Tropical Deciduous Forests |
|
Tropical Evergreen forests are found in areas which receive more than
200 cms. of annual rainfall. |
Tropical Deciduous Forests are found in areas which receive annual
rainfall between 100 cm and 200 cm. |
|
Trees in tropical evergreen forests do not shed their leaves. |
Tress in deciduous forests shed their leaves from six to eight weeks
during spring and early summer. |
Question 2(b)
What are the climatic conditions
under which Tropical Evergreen Forests develop?
Answer
The climatic conditions under
which Tropical Evergreen Forests develop are-
- Annual rainfall of more than
200 cm
- Average annual temperature
between 25°C and 27°C
- Average annual humidity
exceeds 77 percent
Question 2(c)
(i) What are the characteristic
features of deciduous forests?
(ii) Name the two types of
deciduous forests.
Answer
(i) The characteristic features
of deciduous forests are-
- The trees in these forests
shed their leaves from six to eight weeks during spring and early summer.
- A particular species can be
found over a large area.
- They are commercially most
exploited.
(ii) The two types of deciduous
forests are-
- Moist Deciduous Forests
- Dry Deciduous Forests
Question 2(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Tropical Evergreen Forests
are difficult to exploit for commercial purposes.
(ii) Delta area of river Ganga is
called Sunderbans.
(iii) Forests are grown in and
around the cities having Iron and Steel Industries, and Thermal Power Plants.
Answer
(i) Tropical Evergreen Forests are
difficult to exploit for commercial purposes because of the tangled mass of
canes, palms, bamboos, ferns and climbers along with the lack of means of
transport.
(ii) Delta area of river Ganga is
called Sunderbans because the forests in this area have sundari trees.
(iii) Forests are grown in and
around the cities having Iron and Steel Industries, and Thermal Power Plants
because the level of pollution is much higher in areas where industries are
located and forests prevent pollution and act as a barrier for the dust and
purify the air.
Question 3(a)
Mention the areas where Tropical
Desert Vegetation thrives.
Answer
Tropical Desert Vegetation
thrives in south-western Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, central and eastern
Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, parts of Maharashtra,
Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
Question 3(b)
Under what climatic conditions do
Littoral forests develop?
Answer
These forests thrive in areas
where temperature remains between 26°C to 29°C and the rainfall is not more
than 200 cm.
Question 3(c)
(i) State two characteristic
features of tropical desert vegetation. Name two typical trees found here.
(ii) Why tropical deserts have
stunted trees.
Answer
(i) Two characteristic features
of tropical desert vegetation are-
- These forests have
Xerophytic vegetation. Due to paucity of rainfall, the trees are stunted
with large patches of coarse grasses.
- Plants remain leafless for
most part of the year and look like scrub vegetation.
Two typical trees found here are
babool and date palm.
(ii) Tropical deserts have
stunted trees due to paucity of rainfall.
Question 3(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) The forest area has greatly
depleted in India.
(ii) The Tropical Evergreen
forests are found on the western slope of the Western Ghats.
(iii) Acacia has long roots.
Answer
(i) The forest area has greatly
depleted in India as forests have been cleared for the purpose of cultivation.
Timber has become an important commercial resource. Rapid industrialization,
urbanisation and expansion of cities has also led to the destruction of forest
cover in the country.
(ii) The Tropical Evergreen
forests are found on the western slope of the Western Ghats because evergreen
forests are found in areas of high temperature and high annual rainfall.
Western Ghats receive more than 200 cms. of annual rainfall with an average annual
temperature between 25°C and 27°C.
(iii) Acacia has long roots so
that the roots can reach deep, ground water resources and therefore, survive
drought like conditions.
Question 4(a)
What are 'Tidal forests'? Name
two typical trees found there.
Answer
Tidal forests are one of the most
specialised tropical natural vegetation types. India has a variety of wetlands
habitats. These lands are between terrestrial and aquatic system where the
water table is usually at or near the surface of land.
Two typical trees found here are
Keora and Amur.
Question 4(b)
Name the type of forests found in
the western part of the Western Ghats. Give two reasons why these forests are
so named.
Answer
Tropical Evergreen forests are
found in the western part of the Western Ghats. They are named so because they
remain green throughout the year as they do not have any particular season to
shed their leaves and also because they grow in the regions receiving annual
rainfall of more than 200 cm.
Question 4(c)
Describe the methods of
protecting forests under the following heads:
(i) Afforestation.
(ii) Using alternative sources of
energy.
Answer
(i) Afforestation means planting
trees on lands which are not previously covered with forest vegetation.
(ii) To conserve forests, we can
use non-conventional or renewable sources of energy like solar energy, tidal
energy, hydel energy etc.
Question 4(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Forests constitute an
important natural resource.
(ii) Agro forestry is not
vulnerable to population stress.
(iii) Tidal forests have profuse
growth with tangle of climbers.
Answer
(i) Forests constitute an
important natural resource because trees provide us with products such as
fruits, leaves, roots and tubers of plants. Wood is used for making furniture
and as a source of energy. Wood and bamboo pulp is used to make paper. Forests
also provide fibers, essential oils, edible plants etc.
(ii) Agro forestry is not
vulnerable to population stress as agro forestry co-ordinates with the local
population and reduces the pressure of population on traditional forestry.
(iii) Tidal forests have profuse
growth with tangle of climbers to survive in soft and shifting mud.
Question 5(a)
What is social forestry?
Answer
Social forestry refers to the
management and protection of orests and afforestation on barren lands with the
purpose of helping in the environmental, social and rural development.
Question 5(b)
Give two points of difference
between agro-forestry and traditional forestry.
Answer
|
Agro-forestry |
Traditional forestry |
|
Agro forestry provides a combined produce of forest and agricultural
crops. |
Traditional forestry only provides the produce of forest products. |
|
It is not vulnerable to population stress. |
It is vulnerable to population stress. |
Question 5(c)
Mention any three methods for the
conservation and development of forests in India.
Answer
Three methods for the
conservation and development of forests in India are-
- Increasing the area under
forests
- Afforestation around
industrial units
- Using alternative sources of
energy
Question 5(d)
State three objectives of
agro-forestry.
Answer
Three objectives of agro-forestry
are-
- To reduce pressure on
natural forests for obtaining timber as well as non-timber forest produce.
- To check soil erosion and to
maintain the natural fertility of the soil.
- To maintain ecological
balance along with proper utilisation of farm resources.
Question 6(a)
Why does the vegetation in the
Himalayas vary with altitude?
Answer
The vegetation in the Himalayas
vary with altitude because in the mountain regions, temperature decreases with
altitude.
Question 6(b)
Why does Tropical Evergreen
forests appear dark inside the forests.
Answer
Tropical Evergreen forests appear
dark inside the forests because of the dense canopy of trees which do not allow
enough sunlight to reach the ground.
Question 6(c)
Explain how is man responsible
for the reduction of forest cover in India.
Answer
The felling of the trees for the
purpose of obtaining timber is an important cause of reduced forest cover in
India. Rapid industrialization, urbanisation and expansion of cities has also
led to the destruction of forest cover in the country.
Question 6(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Nilgiri region has variety of
vegetation type.
(ii) Sundari trees are used for
boat making and construction purposes.
(iii) Littoral forest is also
called tidal forest.
Answer
(i) In mountain regions,
temperature decreases with increase in altitude. This has a corresponding
effect on the natural vegetation of the mountain region. Thus, vegetation in
lower regions of Nilgiri is sub tropical and vegetation in upper regions of
Nilgiri is temperate.
(ii) Sundari trees are used for
boat making and construction purposes because these trees provide hard durable
timber.
(iii) Littoral forest is also
called tidal forest because they are found in tidal zone, an area that is above
water at low tide and under water at high tide.
Question 7(a)
Name two areas where Tropical
deciduous vegetation is found.
Answer
Tropical deciduous vegetation is
found in north-eastern part of the peninsula and along the foothills of the
Himalayas.
Question 7(b)
Why do the Coniferous trees of
mountain forests have conical shape?
Answer
Since coniferous trees are found
in cold regions, they are well adapted to the cold climate. Their leaves are
conical in shape so that the snow slides off easily from the branches without
causing any damage to them.
Question 7(c)
What is meant by 'farm forestry'?
State two of its advantages for farmers.
Answer
Farm forestry is the practice of
growing trees on the farm land to produce saleable products like timber,
tannin, charcoal, etc. and to provide shade and shelter for stock and crops.
Two advantages of farm forestry are-
- It increases farm income.
- It supports community
development.
Question 7(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Littoral forest vegetation
has breathing roots.
(ii) Forests are often compared
to human lungs.
(iii) Van Mahotsav is celebrated
in our country every year.
Answer
(i) Littoral forest vegetation
has breathing roots because these root enable the plants to breathe during the
waterlogged conditions which occur when high tide comes.
(ii) Forests are compared to
human lungs as the trees which make up a forest act as the compartment of lungs
which help in inhalation and exhalation of the air. But in lungs, Oxygen is
taken in and Carbon dioxide is given out whereas in trees carbon dioxide is
inhaled and oxygen is exhaled.
(iii) Van Mahotsav is celebrated
in our country every year to create awareness about the importance of trees and
encourage community participation in planting trees.
Chapter 10
Water Resources
Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star
Answer
the following questions
Question 1(a)
What do you understand by the
term 'water resource'?
Answer
The term 'water resource' refers
to any of the entire range of natural waters that occur on the earth and are of
potential use to living beings.
Question 1(b)
Give two points of difference
between 'surface water' and 'ground water'.
Answer
|
Surface
water |
Ground water |
|
Surface water forms streams, lakes, rivers and ponds flowing on land. |
The water which seeps through the cracks and crevices under the
surface of the land is known as ground water. |
|
It can be used directly without pumping. |
It needs to be pumped out of the ground before it can be used. |
Question 1(c)
(i) What is meant by rainwater
harvesting?
(ii) Mention any two rainwater
harvesting systems practised in India.
Answer
(i) Rainwater harvesting is the
process of increasing the recharge of groundwater by capturing and storing
rainwater locally in sub-surface water reservoirs.
(ii) Two rainwater harvesting
systems practised in India are-
- Khatri in western Himalayas
- Johads in central India
Question 1(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Need to adopt different means
of irrigation.
(ii) Need for conserving water.
(iii) Man is responsible for
water crisis in India.
Answer
(i) There is a need to adopt
different means of irrigation because of uncertainty of rainfall, uneven
distribution of rainfall, crop requirements, nature of the soil, effective
utilisation of river water and to maximise production.
(ii) There is a need for
conserving water for the following reasons-
- The over exploitation of
ground water often results in the lowering of water table.
- The loss of vegetation
causes drought and reduction of rainfall and lowering of the water table.
- Irrigation utilises more
than 90% of the total freshwater.
- The increase in population
results in water scarcity.
- Our water resources are
polluted and their water can hardly be used without adequate treatment.
(iii) Man is responsible for
water crisis in India because due to increase in population, irrigation and
industrialisation, the demand for water has risen. This has led to a decline in
groundwater levels in various parts of the country.
Question 2(a)
What is meant by the term
irrigation?
Answer
Irrigation refers to the process
of watering of agricultural plants through artificial means from wells, tanks,
tube wells, canals, etc.
Question 2(b)
What is meant by the term 'water
scarcity'? What has caused this scarcity in India?
Answer
Water scarcity is the lack of
sufficient available water resources to meet the demands of water usage within
a region.
Growing population,
over-exploitation and unequal distribution of water among social groups are the
main causes of water scarcity in India.
Question 2(c)
(i) What is meant by traditional
or conventional methods of irrigation?
(ii) Name any two conventional
methods of irrigation.
Answer
(i) Traditional methods of
irrigation means to supply water to the plant zone by pumped water from surface
or subsurface sources like ponds, rivers, channels or groundwater through
earthen channels or pipes with gravitational force.
(ii) Two conventional methods of
irrigation are wells and tanks.
Question 2(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Inundation canals are being
converted to perennial canals.
(ii) Tank irrigation is preferred
over other means of irrigation in Peninsular India.
(iii) Groundwater reserves are
depleting at a fast rate.
Answer
(i) Inundation canals are being
converted to perennial canals because inundation canals get supply of water
only when the rivers are in flood while perennial canals can draw water
throughout the year and irrigate large areas.
(ii) Tank irrigation is preferred
over other means of irrigation in Peninsular India because-
- The rivers of Deccan are
mainly dependent on the rainwater.
- Many streams become
torrential during the rainy season but dry up when the rain ceases.
- The hard rocks in the area
do not absorb waters, wells cannot be made there.
- The terrain is uneven with
many natural depressions where tanks can be easily built.
(iii) Groundwater reserves are
depleting at a fast rate due to increase in population, irrigation and
industrialisation, the demand for water has risen. This has led to a decline in
groundwater level in various parts of the country.
Question 3(a)
State any two drawbacks of
conventional methods of irrigation.
Answer
Two drawbacks of conventional
methods of irrigation are-
- A large quantity of water is
not properly utilised.
- The fields situated in low
areas always get excess water causing prolonged water logging.
Question 3(b)
Give two advantages and two
disadvantages of well irrigation.
Answer
Two advantages of well irrigation
are-
- Wells can be dug at a very
low cost which is well within the means of poor farmers.
- By the use of pumps and
tubewells, water can be lifted even from great depths.
Two disadvantages of well
irrigation are-
- Wells depend on underground
water resources whose distribution varies from region to region.
- The traditional wells dry up
due to over withdrawal of the ground water and lowering of the water
table.
Question 3(c)
(i) Name any two states where
well irrigation is practised.
(ii) Give one advantage and one
disadvantage of tubewell irrigation.
Answer
(i) Two states where well
irrigation is practised are Punjab and Uttar Pradesh.
(ii) One advantage of tubewell
irrigation is that it brings up clean water.
One disadvantage of tubewell irrigation is that it is useless if the water is
brackish.
Question 3(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Well irrigation is confined
mainly to the alluvial plains.
(ii) In Tamil Nadu, nearly
one-third of the net irrigated area is under canal irrigation.
(iii) Drip irrigation reduces
loss of water through evaporation.
Answer
(i) Well irrigation is confined
mainly to the alluvial plains as owing to the soft nature of the soil, wells
can be easily dug and the yield of crops from the land after irrigation is
considerably high.
(ii) In Tamil Nadu, nearly
one-third of the net irrigated area is under canal irrigation because Tamil
Nadu receives rainfall during the winter season while summer season remains
dry. Thus, irrigation is needed in summer to make up the lack of rainfall.
(iii) Drip irrigation reduces
loss of water through evaporation as this system consists of perforated pipes
that are placed between rows of crops or buried along their root lines and give
water directly on to the crops.
Question 4(a)
Name the two types of canals.
Name two states where perennial canals are widely used.
Answer
Two types of canals are-
- Inundation canals
- Perennial canals
Two states where perennial canals
are widely used are Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
Question 4(b)
How are the fields irrigated
using the Persian wheel method?
Answer
Persian wheel method is a partly
submerged vertical wheel with buckets attached to the rim. As the wheel is
turned by draught animals rotating a geared horizontal wheel, the buckets are
filled and emptied into a trough above, which carries the water to crop-sown
fields.
Question 4(c)
(i) Name two states in which
tubewells are extensively used.
(ii) State why tubewell
irrigation is important in Punjab.
Answer
(i) Two states in which tubewells
are extensively used are Punjab and Haryana.
(ii) Tubewell irrigation is
important in Punjab because it irrigates large areas of land in comparatively
less time and it can irrigate the fields throughout the year.
Question 4(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Canals make the soil
infertile.
(ii) Tubewell irrigation is quite
expensive.
(iii) Excessive accumulation of
salts make the soils unsuitable for cultivation.
Answer
(i) Canals make the soil
infertile because in canal irrigation, where water table is a few feet below
the ground, the alkaline salts come to the surface, mix with the soil and make
it unproductive.
(ii) Tubewell irrigation is quite
expensive as it requires continuous supply of electricity.
(iii) Excessive accumulation of
salts make the soils unsuitable for cultivation because when salt
concentrations in the soil are high, the movement of water from the soil to the
root is slowed down. When the salt concentrations in the soil are higher than
inside the root cells, the soil will draw water from the root, and the plant
will wilt and die. Hence, the soil becomes unsuitable for cultivation.
Question 5(a)
What is meant by rainwater
harvesting?
Answer
Rainwater harvesting is the
process of increasing the recharge of groundwater by capturing and storing
rainwater locally in sub-surface water reservoirs.
Question 5(b)
State any two methods of
rainwater harvesting.
Answer
Two methods of rainwater
harvesting are-
- Khatri in western Himalayas
- Johads in central India
Question 5(c)
(i) What is watershed management?
(ii) How is it beneficial for
farmers in the long run?
Answer
(i) Watershed management refers
to the efficient management and conservation of both the surface and
groundwater resources. It includes the prevention of run-off as well as storage
and recharge of groundwater by various methods like percolation pits, recharge
wells, borewells, dugwells etc.
(ii) Watershed management is
beneficial for farmers as it is aimed at conserving both soil and water. Since
both soil and water are indispensible for the cultivation of crops, watershed
management helps farmers to maximize their crop production and income.
Question 5(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Many farmers in India still
use wells.
(ii) There is very little
recharge of groundwater.
(iii) The traditional wells dry
up.
Answer
(i) Many farmers in India still
use wells because wells can be dug at a very low cost and the oxen which are
kept for ploughing the land can be utilised for drawing water from the well.
(ii) There is very little
recharge of groundwater as only a small amount of rain water runs down the
earth surface and gets stored in the form of groundwater. So, only a small
percentage of water gets down to the water table and forms ground water.
(iii) The traditional wells dry
up due to the over-withdrawal of the groundwater and lowering of the water
table.
Question 6(a)
What is 'drip irrigation'? How is
it useful?
Answer
Drip irrigation is the most
advanced and efficient method of irrigation. This system consists of perforated
pipes that are placed between rows of crops or buried along their root lines
and give water directly on to the crops.
It is useful as it reduces
evaporation drastically and irrigation water is conserved. It also allows the
grower to customise an irrigation programme most beneficial to each crop.
Question 6(b)
Explain briefly the need to
conserve water.
Answer
We need to conserve water for the
following reasons-
- The over exploitation of
ground water often results in the lowering of water table.
- The loss of vegetation
causes drought and reduction of rainfall and lowering of the water table.
- Irrigation utilises more
than 90% of the total freshwater.
- The increase in population
results in water scarcity.
- Our water resources are
polluted and their water can hardly be used without adequate treatment.
Question 6(c)
What is meant by furrow
irrigation? What is its advantage?
Answer
Furrow irrigation is a type of
flood irrigation in which the water poured on the field is directed to flow
through narrow channels dug between the rows of crops, instead of evenly
distributing the water throughout the whole field. The furrows must have equal
dimensions, in order to guarantee that the water is distributed evenly.
The advantage of furrow
irrigation is lower initial investment of equipment and lower pumping costs per
acre-inch of water pumped.
Question 6(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Modern means of irrigation
are gaining popularity.
(ii) Sprinkler irrigation helps
in conserving water.
(iii) Spray irrigation is quite
expensive.
Answer
(i) Modern means of irrigation
are gaining popularity because of the following reasons-
- No loss of water due to
seepage or evaporation
- Conserve water
- Prevent soil erosion
- Suitable for areas where the
rainfall is low
- High efficiency
(ii) Sprinkler irrigation helps
in conserving water as water is sprayed directly to the required plants so
there is no loss of water through seepage or evaporation.
(iii) Spray irrigation is quite
expensive because it requires complex machinery.
Chapter 11
Mineral Resources
Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star
Answer
the following questions
Question 1(a)
What is a mineral? State two
characteristics of minerals.
Answer
Minerals are natural substances
of organic or inorganic origin with definite chemical and physical properties.
Two characteristics of minerals
are-
- Minerals are not evenly
distributed over space.
- Minerals have inverse
relationship in quality and quantity.
Question 1(b)
What is the difference between
metallic and non-metallic minerals?
Answer
|
Metallic
minerals |
Non-metallic minerals |
|
Metallic minerals are minerals in which metal elements are present in
their raw form. |
Non-metallic minerals do not contain any metal substances in them. |
|
Metallic minerals are usually found in igneous and metamorphic rock
formations. |
Non-metallic minerals are often found embedded in young fold mountains
and sedimentary rocks. |
|
Metallic minerals are good conductors of electricity as well as heat. |
Non-metallic minerals are basically good insulators of electricity and
heat. |
|
Metallic minerals have high malleability and ductility. |
Non-metallic minerals lack malleability and ductility and these
minerals break down easily. |
|
Metallic minerals generally have lustre. |
Non-metallic minerals do not have any shine or lustre. |
Question 1(c)
Name the three varieties of iron
ore mined in India. Name one state where each is found.
Answer
The three varieties of iron ore
mined in India are-
1. Haematite — It is found in Odisha.
2. Magnetite — It is found in Tamil
Nadu.
3. Limonite — It is found in
Uttarakhand.
Question 1(d)
(i) Name the best quality of iron
ore.
(ii) Name two states where it is
found.
Answer
(i) Magnetite is the best quality
of iron ore.
(ii) It is found in Tamil Nadu
and Karnataka.
Question 2(a)
What type of mineral is copper?
Name any two states where copper is found in India.
Answer
Copper is a non-ferrous metal. It
is found in Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
Question 2(b)
State two uses of aluminium.
Answer
Aluminium is used in aircrafts
and automobiles.
Question 2(c)
Bauxite is an oxide of which metal?
Where are the deposits of Bauxite found in India?
Answer
Bauxite is an oxide of aluminium.
The deposits of Bauxite are found in Goa, Odisha, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh,
Chattisgarh, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
Question 2(d)
Give a reason for each of the
following:
(i) Manganese is an important raw
material in the iron and steel industry.
(ii) Bauxite is used in
electrical equipment industry.
(iii) Raw iron needs to be
alloyed in order to be useful in construction and automobile industry.
Answer
(i) Manganese is an important raw
material in the iron and steel industry because it is used to make steel tough
and resistant to rusting.
(ii) Bauxite is used in
electrical equipment industry because it is a good conductor of electricity.
(iii) Raw iron needs to be
alloyed in order to be useful in construction and automobile industry because
raw iron by itself is not as strong and hard as needed for construction and
automobile industry.
Question 3(a)
How is brass and bronze made? State
two uses of copper.
Answer
Copper is alloyed with zinc to
form brass and with tin to make bronze.
Two uses of copper are-
- It is used in building
construction for roofing and plumbing.
- It is used in ship-building
industry.
Question 3(b)
Name two leading states producing
manganese. State two industrial uses of manganese.
Answer
Two leading states producing
manganese are Karnataka and Odisha.
Two industrial uses of manganese
are-
- It is an important raw
material for the iron and steel industry.
- It is used in chemical
industries for manufacturing bleaching powder.
Question 3(c)
(i) Name two characteristics of
iron ore deposits in India that facilitate their optimum use in the iron and
steel plants.
(ii) Name two industries that
require iron ore as raw material.
Answer
(i) Two characteristics of iron
ore deposits in India that facilitate their optimum use in the iron and steel
plants are-
- Iron ore deposits occur as
hill masses and are easily accessible.
- They are found in close
proximity to the areas producing coal, dolomite, limestone and manganese.
(ii) Two industries that require
iron ore as raw material are iron and steel industries.
Question 3(d)
Give a reason for each of the
following:
(i) Magnetite is so called.
(ii) Copper is used for making
electric wires.
(iii) Aluminium is used for
making aircraft.
Answer
(i) Magnetite is so called
because it possesses magnetic property.
(ii) Copper is used for making
electric wires because it is a good conductor of electricity, highly malleable
and ductile.
(iii) Aluminium is used for
making aircraft because it is light weight and strong.
Chapter 12
Conventional Sources of Energy
Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star
Answer
the following questions
Question 1(a)
What is meant by conventional
sources of energy? Name any two conventional sources of energy.
Answer
Conventional sources of energy
are those which have been used by man for a long time and are still being
tapped and used abundantly.
These include coal, petroleum,
natural gas and hydel power.
Question 1(b)
Name two main coal bearing areas
in India.
Answer
Two main coal bearing areas in
India are Raniganj in West Bengal and Jharia in Jharkhand.
Question 1(c)
(i) Name the varieties of coal
found in India.
(ii) Give a characteristic of
each type of coal.
Answer
(i) The varieties of coal found
in India are anthracite, bituminous, lignite and peat.
(ii) Characteristic of each type
of coal are:
- Anthracite coal — It is shiny and
lustrous, almost jet black.
- Bituminous coal — It is hard, black
and compact and makes up almost 80% of the world's total coal output.
- Lignite coal — It comprises 40% of
carbon and a good deal of moisture and less of combustible matter.
- Peat coal — It has the least
carbon content and is inferior to the other three varieties of coal.
Question 1(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Anthracite is used for
domestic purposes.
(ii) Oil refineries are located
close to oilfields or near ports.
(iii) The location of coalfields
is an important factor in industrial development.
Answer
(i) Anthracite is used for
domestic purposes as it is a smokeless fuel with high calorific value.
(ii) Oil refineries are located
close to oilfields or near ports to minimise the cost of transport and to avoid
the risk of transporting the oil inside the country due to its inflammable
nature.
(iii) Location of coal fields is
an important factor in industrial development because it is the basic source of
power and it is heavy and bulky also, hence difficult to transport.
Question 2(a)
How is Gondwana coalfield
different from tertiary coalfield in terms of location and quality?
Answer
|
Gondwana
Coalfields |
Tertiary Coalfields |
|
Gondwana coalfields are largely confined to river valleys like those
of Damodar, Mahanadi and Godavari. These coalfields are located in the states
of West Bengal, Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra,
Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. |
Tertiary coalfields are found in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya,
Nagaland, Kashmir and in the coastal areas of Tamil Nadu, Gujarat and inland
basin of Rajasthan. |
|
This coal is free from moisture and contains sulphur and phosphorus in
small variable quantities. |
This coal has a higher moisture content and more sulphur, with less
calorific value. |
Question 2(b)
Name the coalfield that is oldest
and one that is largest in India.
Answer
The oldest coalfield in India is
in Raniganj in West Bengal and the largest coalfield is in Jharia in Jharkhand.
Question 2(c)
(i) State two advantages of coal
as a source of power.
(ii) Where is the oldest oilfield
located in India?
Answer
(i) Two advantages of coal as a
source of power are-
- Energy produced from coal
fired plants is cheaper and more affordable than other energy sources.
- Coal is easy to burn and
produces high energy upon combustion.
(ii) The oldest oilfield in India
is Digboi oilfield situated in Tinsukhia district of Assam.
Question 2(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Petroleum is called 'liquid
gold'.
(ii) Natural gas is a fossil
fuel.
(iii) CNG is an eco-friendly
fuel.
Answer
(i) Petroleum is called 'liquid
gold' because there is not even a tiniest part of crude petroleum which goes to
waste or remains unused.
(ii) Natural gas is a fossil fuel
because it has been formed by decomposing remains of dead animals and plants
buried under the earth.
(iii) CNG is an eco-friendly fuel
because it causes less damage to the environment as it is made up of methane
and results in less carbon emissions.
Question 3(a)
What is Natural Gas? Name two
variants of natural gas.
Answer
Natural gas is a fossil fuel
which occurs in association with mineral oil. It is mainly composed of methane
with small amounts of propane and ethane.
Two variants of natural gas are-
- Compressed Natural Gas
- Liquified Natural Gas
Question 3(b)
Where is natural gas found in
India? Name two coastal and two inland oil-refineries in India.
Answer
Over three-fourths of India's
natural gas comes from Mumbai High. The rest is produced in Assam, Tamil Nadu,
Rajasthan and Tripura.
Two coastal oil-refineries in
India are-
- Haldia refinery – Indian Oil
Corporation Limited in Haldia, West Bengal
- Visakhapatnam Refinery –
Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh
Two inland oil-refineries in
India are-
- Bina Refinery – Bharat Oman
Refineries Limited in Bina, Madhya Pradesh.
- Panipat Refinery – Indian
Oil Corporation Limited in Panipat, Haryana.
Question 3(c)
(i) Why do the natural gas
deposits mostly accompany oil deposits?
(ii) What is added to domestic
gas cylinders, which gives a foul smell? Why?
Answer
(i) Natural gas deposits mostly
accompany oil deposits because it has been formed by decomposing remains of
dead animals and plants buried under the earth.
(ii) Ethyl mercaptan, a foul smelling
gas is added to domestic gas cylinders, so that any leakage of LPG from the
cylinder can be detected instantaneously.
Question 3(d)
Give two advantages and one
disadvantage of natural gas.
Answer
Two advantages of natural gas
are-
- It is a cleaner, cheaper
fuel than diesel or gasoline.
- Natural gas is an
eco-friendly fuel.
One disadvantage of natural gas
is that leaks of natural gas are difficult to detect and are very dangerous.
Question 4(a)
Name one important area that has
large coal deposits in:
(i) Jharkhand
(ii) West Bengal
Answer
(i) Jharia has large coal
deposits in Jharkhand.
(ii) Raniganj has large coal
deposits in West Bengal.
Question 4(b)
State any one disadvantage of
coal found in India.
Answer
One disadvantage of coal found in
India is that its calorific value is low.
Question 4(c)
(i) Name two states that have
deposits of the Gondwana coal.
(ii) Name two industries that use
large quantity of coal.
Answer
(i) Jharkhand and Odisha have
deposits of the Gondwana coal.
(ii) Two industries that use
large quantity of coal are-
- Iron and Steel industries
- Thermal energy power plants
Question 4(d)
(i) Which state is the largest
producer of mineral oil?
(ii) Mention any two advantages
of hydel power.
Answer
(i) Assam is the largest producer
of mineral oil.
(ii) Two advantages of hydel
power are-
- Hydel power is clean,
non-polluting source of energy.
- It does not produce any
Greenhouse gases and prevents global warming.
Question 5(a)
Why does India have to import
oil?
Answer
India has to import oil to meet the
ever increasing industrial and domestic demands.
Question 5(b)
Name one refinery which belongs
to the private sector and one in the public sector.
Answer
Jamnagar refinery in Gujarat
belongs to the private sector and Guwahati Refinery in Assam is a public sector
refinery.
Question 5(c)
Name the two coastal
oil-refineries, one on the west coast of India and the other on the east coast
of India. Name one inland oil refinery. List the sources of crude oil for these
refineries.
Answer
Below are the oil-refineries
along with their location and source of crude oil:
- Oil refinery — Trombay
refinery in Maharashtra
Location — West coast of India
Source of crude oil — Ankleshwar fields - Oil refinery — Visakhapatnam
Refinery in Andhra Pradesh
Location — East coast of India
Source of crude oil — Tatipaka field - Oil refinery — Mathura
refinery in Uttar Pradesh
Location — Inland oil refinery
Source of crude oil — Mumbai High
Question 5(d)
Where are the deposits of
Petroleum normally located? Give two uses of Petroleum besides being used as a
fuel.
Answer
Petroleum is normally found in
underground reservoirs in sedimentary rock formations like sandstone, shale and
limestone. The entire production of India comes from the Assam-Arakan belt, the
Gujarat-Cambay belt and the Mumbai High offshore zone.
Two uses of Petroleum besides
being used as a fuel are-
- Petroleum after refining is
used as raw material for the production of various petrochemical products
like synthetic rubber, synthetic fibre, polysterene, PVC, phenol, gasoline
etc.
- It is used for power generation.
Question 6(a)
Name four products that are
obtained during the refining process of petroleum.
Answer
Four products that are obtained
during the refining process of petroleum are-
- Petrol
- Diesel
- Kerosene
- Tar
Question 6(b)
State any two advantages of using
petroleum as a source of power.
Answer
Two advantages of using petroleum
as a source of power are-
- It is a stable energy
source.
- It is a high density fuel.
Question 6(c)
State any three disadvantages of
using petroleum.
Answer
Three disadvantages of using
petroleum are-
- Petroleum is a natural
fossil fuel and non-renewable.
- Extracting and burning
petroleum generates greenhouse gases that contribute to global warming and
environmental pollution.
- It is expensive because of
its limited supply and high demand.
Question 6(d)
State any three disadvantages of
hydel power.
Answer
Three disadvantages of hydel
power are-
- The cost of building dams
for producing hydroelectricity is quite high.
- Building a large dam alters
the natural water table level.
- Building dams displaces many
people from the area and disturbs their life physically, mentally and
psychologically.
Question 7(a)
Where is Mumbai High? What is
Sagar Samrat?
Answer
In Maharashtra, about 176 km off
Mumbai in the Arabian Sea, there is a huge oil deposit known as Mumbai High.
The syncline of the rock
structure in which oil has been struck is higher than the normal height and oil
is taken from the depth of over 1,400 m with the help of a specially designed
platform known as 'Sagar Samrat'. It is a self propelled jack-up type of
drilling platform.
Question 7(b)
Why is coal often used near the
source of its mining whereas mineral oil is transported to great distances?
Answer
Coal is a bulky material and its
transportation is difficult and costly. Secondly, coal is not a hard but a soft
mineral. If not transported in a proper way, it may get crushed and reduced to
ash. This results in reduction of the weight of coal. Hence it is used near the
source of mining.
Oil is transported to greater
distances through pipelines which is a cheaper and easier means of transport.
Question 7(c)
Name the region in which India's
main coalfields are located. What is the quality of coal found here? What are
its uses?
Answer
The Gondwana coalfields are the
largest in India as it accounts for 98% of the total reserves of coal in India.
Gondwana coal fields are located in the states of West Bengal, Jharkhand,
Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Andhra
Pradesh. These coal fields accounts for four-fifth of India's coal reserves.
Gondwana coal is mainly of
bituminous quality. It is almost free from moisture and contains sulphur and
phosphorus in small variable quantities.
Gondwana coal is used to produce
coke, coal gas and steam coal.
Question 7(d)
State three advantages of dams.
Answer
Three advantages of dams are-
- Dams built to produce
hydroelectricity help to save and restore water.
- Dams provide water for
irrigation.
- Dams prevent flooding.
Question 8(a)
What is meant by hydel power?
Answer
Electricity generated from water
is called hydel power.
Question 8(b)
With reference to the Bhakra
Nangal Dam, answer the following:
(i) Name the river on which it
has been constructed.
(ii) Name two states that benefit
from this project.
Answer
(i) Bhakra Nangal dam has been
constructed on the river Sutlej.
(ii) Punjab and Himachal Pradesh
benefit from this project.
Question 8(c)
(i) On which river is Hirakud Dam
located?
(ii) Give any two uses of this
dam.
Answer
(i) Hirakud dam is built across
Mahanadi river.
(ii) Two uses of this dam are-
- It regulates the flow of the
Mahanadi river and produces hydroelectricity through several hydroelectric
plants.
- The dam helps control floods
in the mahanadi delta and irrigates 75,000 sq km of land.
Question 8(d)
State three disadvantages of
building a big dam.
Answer
Three disadvantages of building a
big dam are-
- The cost of building dams
for producing hydroelectricity is quite high.
- Building a large dam alters
the natural water table level.
- It can cause serious
geological damage like triggering earthquakes in the area.
Chapter 13
Non-Conventional Sources of Energy
Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star
Answer
the following questions
Question 1(a)
What are non-conventional sources
of energy?
Answer
Non-Conventional sources of
energy are those which have been developed in the recent past as an alternative
to conventional sources of energy. These include solar energy, wind energy,
tidal energy, geothermal energy, nuclear energy and biogas.
Question 1(b)
State two differences between
conventional and non-conventional sources of energy.
Answer
|
Conventional
sources of energy |
Non-Conventional sources of energy |
|
Conventional sources of energy are those which have been used by man
for a long time and are still being tapped and used abundantly. |
Non-conventional sources of energy are those which have been developed
in the recent past as an alternative to conventional sources of energy. |
|
Except for hydel energy, these sources of energy are non-renewable. |
Most of these sources are renewable. |
Question 1(c)
How is India in an advantageous
position to harness solar energy?
Answer
India is in an advantageous
position to harness solar energy because of India's location on the Tropic of
Cancer. Most parts of the country have 300 clear sunny days in a year and per
hour per square km availability of solar energy between 5 to 7 kW.
Question 1(d)
Give a reason for each of the
following:
(i) Non-conventional sources of
energy are called the resources of the future.
(ii) India is an advantageous
position in terms of solar energy.
(iii) Harvesting of solar energy
does not require much maintenance.
Answer
(i) Non-conventional sources of
energy are called the resources of the future as most of these sources of
energy are renewable, non-polluting, less expensive to run and easy to
maintain.
(ii) India in an advantageous
position to harness solar energy because of India's location on the Tropic of
Cancer. Most parts of the country have 300 clear sunny days in a year and per
hour per square km availability of solar energy between 5 to 7 kW.
(iii) Harvesting of solar energy
does not require much maintenance as most reliable solar panel manufacturers
give 20-25 years warranty. Also, as there are no moving parts, there is no wear
and tear. So, after covering the initial cost of the solar energy system, it
requires very little spending on maintenance and repair work.
Question 2(a)
State briefly how the Sun's
energy can be used to generate power.
Answer
Sun's energy can be transformed
into electrical energy with the help of solar cells. Solar cells are also known
as photovoltaic cells. They are made up of thin wafers of semi conductor
materials from silicon and gallium. When Sun's light falls on them, the Sun's
energy gets converted into electricity.
Question 2(b)
Wind energy can generate
additional income for the land owners.
Answer
Land owners can look for
additional income by installing wind turbines on land that can even be used for
agricultural purposes. The electricity generated by wind power can be used for
domestic consumption and reduce monthly electricity bills, and the surplus
power can be sold back to the local grid which can result in more savings.
Hence, wind energy can generate additional income for the land owners.
Question 2(c)
State any three advantages of
using solar energy.
Answer
Three advantages of using solar
energy are-
- It is a renewable source of
energy which can be harnessed in most of the areas of the world.
- It can be used for diverse
purposes like producing electricity in areas without access to the energy
grid, to distill water in regions with limited clean water supplies and to
power satellites in space.
- Solar energy systems do not
require a lot of maintenance.
Question 2(d)
How is wind energy utilised to
produce electricity?
Answer
The wind energy is obtained by
making use of windmills. The blades of the windmill rotate due to the force of
the wind. The rotational motion of the blades drives a number of machines like
water pumps, flour mills and electric generators. A number of windmills are
installed in a definite pattern in clusters called wind farms. They generate a
large amount of electricity.
Question 3(a)
What is tidal energy? Give an
advantage of using tidal energy.
Answer
The rise and fall of water of the
ocean produced by the attraction of the Moon and Sun produces a large amount of
energy called Tidal energy.
An advantage of Tidal energy is
that it can be produced even if the water moves at a low speed.
Question 3(b)
Give two advantages of using wind
energy.
Answer
Two advantages of using wind
energy are-
- It is a renewable source of
energy that can be produced again and again.
- It is the cleanest form of
renewable energy that produces no pollution.
Question 3(c)
What are wind farms? Where are
they usually located?
Answer
A number of windmills are
installed in a definite pattern in clusters called wind farms.
They are usually installed in
coastal regions, open grasslands or hilly regions.
Question 3(d)
(i) What is geothermal energy?
(ii) How is geothermal energy
used to produce electricity?
Answer
(i) Geothermal energy is the heat
energy contained in the rock and fluid that fills the fractures and pores
within the rock in the earth's crust.
(ii) Resources of geothermal
energy can be generated by using the shallow steam, hot water and hot rock by
drilling wells up to thousands of feet beneath the earth's surface. The
extremely high temperatures in the deeper geothermal reservoirs are used for
the generation of electricity. The high-pressure steam spins the turbine that
rotates a generator and produces electricity.
Hot water is pumped from deep
underground through a well under high pressure. When the water reaches the
surface, the pressure is dropped, which causes the water to turn into steam.
The steam spins the turbine, which is connected to a generator that produces
electricity. The steam cools off in the cooling tower and condenses back to
water. The cooled water is pumped back into the earth to begin the process
again.
Question 4(a)
Name one area each where solar,
wind, tidal and geothermal energy is generated in India.
Answer
|
Energy |
Area |
|
Solar energy |
Bhadla Solar Park, Jodhpur, Rajasthan |
|
Wind energy |
Madurai in Tamil Nadu |
|
Tidal energy |
Gulf of Kutch |
|
Geothermal energy |
Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh |
Question 4(b)
State any two advantages of using
geothermal energy.
Answer
Two advantages of using
geothermal energy are-
- It is easily accessible
because of its extensive distribution.
- It is independent of weather
and season.
Question 4(c)
Name the process involved in
generation of nuclear energy. State any three advantages of using nuclear
power.
Answer
Process involved in generation of
nuclear energy
When atoms of radioactive
substances react, they split apart. This process is known as nuclear fission.
Nuclear fission produces heat,
and this heat is used to heat water and make steam. The steam powers turbines
which in turn are used to run generators which produce electricity.
Two main types of nuclear
reactors used to generate electricity are-
- Pressurised water reactor — The water is heated
by the nuclear reaction, but it does not boil because the water is
pressurised. The heated water is circulated through the tubes in steam
generators allowing the water in the steam generator to turn to steam,
which then turns the turbine.
- Boiling water reactor — In this, the water
comes to a boil due to the heat produced by the nuclear reaction and turns
into steam to turn the turbine. The water from the reactor powers the
turbine.
Three advantages of using nuclear
power are-
- Nuclear energy reduces the
requirement of the amount of energy generated from fossil fuels and
therefore, reduces the use of fossil fuels and lowers Greenhouse Gas
emissions.
- Fission of one atom of
uranium produces ten million times the energy released by burning of one
atom of carbon. In this way, nuclear energy not only saves on raw
materials but also in transport, handling and extraction of nuclear fuel.
The cost of nuclear fuel is 20% of the cost of energy generated.
- Nuclear energy is the most
reliable source of energy as nuclear power plants can run 24 hours a day
and seven days a week.
Question 4(d)
How is biogas beneficial for the
farmers and householders?
Answer
Biogas is beneficial for the
farmers in the form of energy and good quality manure. It is useful for the
householders as the gas is used for cooking, lighting and pumping water from
wells.
Question 5(a)
What is nuclear power?
Answer
Nuclear power is obtained from
energy stored in the nuclei of atoms of naturally occurring radioactive
elements like uranium, thorium and plutonium.
Question 5(b)
Name two minerals used for the
generation of nuclear energy. Name two nuclear power plants in India.
Answer
Uranium and Thorium are the two
minerals used for the generation of nuclear energy.
Two nuclear power plants in India
are-
- Kaiga in Karnataka
- Kakrapar in Gujarat
Question 5(c)
What is biogas? How is biogas
produced?
Answer
Biogas is composed of methane,
carbon dioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide.
Biogas is produced by anaerobic
degradation of animal and plant wastes in the presence of water. Anaerobic
degradation means breaking down of organic matter by bacteria in the absence of
oxygen. The fermentation of the waste products is carried out by bacteria,
which produces hydrocarbon gas, predominantly methane and alcohol. The residue
left behind in the tank is rich in nutrients and can be used as manure.
Question 5(d)
Explain how using nuclear energy
in a controlled environment can be a boon for our country.
Answer
Using nuclear energy in a
controlled environment can be a boon for our country for the following reasons-
- Nuclear energy reduces the
requirement of the amount of energy generated from fossil fuels and
therefore, reduces the use of fossil fuels and lowers Greenhouse Gas emissions.
- Fission of one atom of
uranium produces ten million times the energy released by burning of one
atom of carbon. In this way, nuclear energy not only saves on raw
materials but also in transport, handling and extraction of nuclear fuel.
The cost of nuclear fuel is 20% of the cost of energy generated.
- Nuclear energy is the most
reliable source of energy as nuclear power plants can run 24 hours a day
and seven days a week. Besides, a nuclear plant needs to refuel every 18
to 24 months. This shows that nuclear fuels are less affected by
fluctuating fuel prices than the more volatile industries like oil and
natural gas.
- When compared to the fossil
fuel waste, the nuclear waste which occurs due to the production of
nuclear power is small in quantity.
Chapter 14
Agriculture — I
Class 10 - Total Geography Morning
Star
Answer the following questions
Question 1(a)
What
is meant by the term 'agriculture'?
Answer
Agriculture
is defined as the cultivation of the soil in order to grow crops and rear
livestock.
Question 1(b)
Why is
agriculture said to be the backbone of the Indian economy?
Answer
Agriculture
is said to be the backbone of the Indian economy as India is primarily an
agricultural country as two-thirds of its population depends on agriculture.
According to the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation,
agriculture and allied sector accounts for-
- 16.5% of India's Gross Value Added
- 17.32% of its Gross Domestic Produce
- 13% share of total value of export
- Employment to 58% of labour force either directly or indirectly
Question 1(c)
Mention
any three problems of agriculture in India.
Answer
Three
problems of agriculture in India are-
- Indian agriculture is dependent to a large extent on the monsoons,
which are uncertain, irregular and unequally distributed.
- Old and inefficient methods and techniques of farming, inadequate
irrigation facilities and inability of the farmers to purchase good
quality seed and modern equipment because of paucity of funds and lack of
latest know-how and inputs.
- Soil erosion is not only a major cause for decreasing soil
fertility but also results in loss of valuable crop land.
Question 1(d)
State
three advantages of cooperative farming.
Answer
Three
advantages of cooperative farming are-
- It allows small farmers to pool together their resources and buy
inputs at bulk rates and increase volume of products to open new markets.
- It enables producers to negotiate for better prices, diffuse risks
and share knowledge, skills and labour.
- It improves the quality of life of member-farmers. It enables them
to arrange time off, take care of children and get help in the form of
extra hands when needed. Shared responsibilities, whole selling, producing
or maintaining shared resources, lightens the work load of the farmers.
Question 2(a)
What
is meant by Green Revolution?
Answer
Green
revolution is regarded as the greatest revolution in the country which helped
to transform the economy from food scarcity to food self-sufficiency.
It is
a term used for describing the manifold increase in India's farm production and
productivity, particularly in the case of major cereal crops like wheat
consequent to the adoption of the 'New Agricultural Strategy' since the
late-sixties.
Question 2(b)
State
any two characteristics of Green Revolution.
Answer
Two
characteristics of Green Revolution are-
- Use of large capital and technological inputs
- Adoption of modern scientific methods of farming
Question 2(c)
State
any three negative impact of Green Revolution in India.
Answer
Three
negative impact of Green Revolution in India are-
- Land degradation due to overuse of fertilizers and pesticides
- Drying aquifers
- Vanishing biodiversity
Question 2(d)
What
was the impact of Green Revolution on Indian agriculture?
Answer
Green
Revolution had the following impact on Indian agriculture -
- It enabled Indian agriculture to change from subsistence to
commercial and market-oriented.
- It led to the development of intensive agricultural production
system that increased production and paved the way for self-sufficiency in
respect of food grains.
- The adoption of new technology under Green Revolution created more
employment opportunities in agriculture sector.
- It enabled the farmers to obtain increasing returns from
agriculture by greater utilisation of agricultural inputs.
- It increased rural prosperity.
Question 3(a)
Give
two points of difference between Extensive and Intensive farming.
Answer
|
Extensive
farming |
Intensive farming |
|
Farms are huge in size. |
Farms are small in size. |
|
It is highly capital intensive. |
It is labour intensive system. |
Question 3(b)
State
any two advantages of Commercial farming.
Answer
Two
advantages of commercial farming are-
- It increases the yield rate of crops.
- By utilizing high-end machinery for cultivating the lands, it takes
less time to perform the agricultural operations.
Question 3(c)
(i)
What type of farming is practised in areas where population is sparse and land
is in plenty?
(ii)
Name two areas in India where such type of farming is practised.
Answer
(i)
Extensive farming is practised in areas where population is sparse and land is
in plenty.
(ii)
Extensive farming is practised in Punjab and Haryana.
Question 3(d)
Give a
reason for each of the following:
(i)
Plantations are managed by large multinational companies.
(ii)
Fields are rotated instead of crops in shifting cultivation.
(iii)
In extensive agriculture, yield per hectare is low but total yield is large.
Answer
(i)
Plantations are managed by large multinational companies because plantation
crops are grown on large farms which are modern, scientific and self-contained
units. Only one crop is grown on a large-scale. Enormous capital investment is
required to set up a plantation and a large number of labourers are employed.
Hence, only multinational companies can manage such large scale plantations.
(ii)
Crops are not rotated in shifting agriculture because the people who practice
shifting agriculture have become habitual of consuming specific crops. Hence,
when the fertility of the current field is lost, they shift to another field
instead of changing their crops.
(iii)
In extensive agriculture, yield per hectare is low but total yield is large
because it is practised in areas with large land holdings, using less labour
and less chemical fertilizers and pesticides.
Question 4(a)
Give
two points of difference between plantation and mixed farming.
Answer
|
Plantation
farming |
Mixed farming |
|
Only one crop is cultivated using modern scientific methods. |
Two or more crops are grown together. |
|
Only crops are cultivated. |
Crops and animals are raised simultaneously. |
Question 4(b)
Give
any two effects of globalisation on Indian agriculture.
Answer
Two
effects of globalisation on Indian agriculture are-
- Farmers have started adopting modern techniques of farming.
- Establishment of food processing industries has increased
employment.
Question 4(c)
Mention
any three measures taken by the government to boost agricultural production.
Answer
Three
measures taken by the government to boost agricultural production are-
- Various land reforms have been introduced. Zamindari and all
intermediaries have been completely abolished.
- Creation of irrigation infrastructure and its optimum utilisation
has been given greater importance.
- The Government of India provides subsidy on fertilizers to ensure
adequate availability of fertilizers to farmers at reasonable rates.
Question 4(d)
Agriculture
in India is a gamble on the monsoon. Explain.
Answer
Indian
agriculture is dependent to a large extent on the monsoons, which are
uncertain, irregular and unequally distributed. Nearly 55% of the net sown area
continues to depend on rainfall rather than irrigation. Hence, agriculture in
India is a gamble on the monsoon.
Question 5(a)
How is
shifting cultivation carried out?
Answer
In
shifting cultivation, a patch of land is cleared by cutting and burning of the
stumps. The ash is spread on the field as manure. After the land is cleared of
trees, seed are sown in the ground and the land is cultivated. Neither
ploughing of the soil nor any other agricultural practices are followed in this
type of agriculture.
After
2-3 years, when the fertility of the soil is lost, the fields are abandoned and
allowed to regain its fertility. The farmers move to a fresh piece of land and
the same process is repeated.
Question 5(b)
Where
is shifting cultivation practised in India? State any one disadvantage of
shifting cultivation.
Answer
Shifting
cultivation is practised in Assam, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Himalayan
region, Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh.
The
disadvantage of shifting cultivation is that it accelerates soil erosion and
causes floods and silting in the lower reaches of the riverine flood plains.
Question 5(c)
State
any two steps being taken by the government to discourage shifting cultivation.
Answer
Two
steps being taken by the government to discourage shifting cultivation are-
- The Government is promoting Intercropping as an alternative to
shifting cultivation.
- The Government is promoting large scale plantations of fast growing
timber varieties to help in restoration of land and creation of wealth for
the land owners.
Question 5(d)
What
is subsistence farming? Mention two features of subsistence farming.
Answer
Subsistence
farming is characterised by small and scattered land holdings and use of
primitive tools, like hoe and digging sticks by family members. As the farmers
are poor, they do not use fertilizers and high yielding variety of seeds in
their fields.
Facilities
like irrigation and electricity are generally not available to them. These
factors result in low productivity. Most of the food production is consumed by
the farmers and their families.
Two
features of subsistence farming are-
- Land holdings are small and scattered.
- The farmers use traditional methods of agriculture.
Question 6(a)
What
is Organic farming?
Answer
Organic
farming is a unique production management system which promotes and enhances
agro-ecosystem health, including biodiversity, biological cycles and soil
biological activity, and this is accomplished by using on-farm agronomic,
biological and mechanical methods in exclusion of all synthetic off-farm
inputs.
Question 6(b)
What
is Cooperative farming?
Answer
Cooperative
farming refers to an organisation of farmers where farmers pool their resources
in certain areas of activity. Each member farmer owns his land individually but
carries out all the farming activities jointly with other farmer members. But
profit is distributed in the ration of land owned by each member farmer.
Question 6(c)
What
are the main characteristics of organic farming?
Answer
The
main characteristics of organic farming are-
- It protects the long term fertility of the soil by maintaining
organic matter levels, and creating optimised conditions for biological
activity within the soil.
- It provides crop nutrients indirectly using relatively insoluble
nutrient sources which are made available to the plant by the action of
soil micro-organisms.
- It maintains nitrogen self sufficiency through the use of legumes
and biological nitrogen fixation as well as effective recycling of organic
materials including crop residues and livestock manures.
- It prevents weeds, diseases and pests by relying primarily on crop
rotations, natural predators diversity, organic manuring, resistant
varieties and limited thermal, biological and chemical intervention.
- It provides attentive care and management of livestock, paying full
regard to their evolutionary adaptations, behavioral needs and animal
welfare issues with respect to nutrition, housing, health, breeding and
rearing.
Question 6(d)
State
why is organic farming gaining popularity in recent times.
Answer
Organic
farming is gaining popularity in recent times because people have become aware
of their benefits. They contain no chemical pesticides and fertilizers and are
grown naturally with manure or compost and only natural pesticides and
insecticides are used.
Children
are more susceptible than adults to diseases caused by chemical pesticide
residues in food and so parents prefer to give them organic foods. Another
advantage is that organic foods do not contain growth hormones or antibiotic
residues. Animals are often given growth hormones and antibiotics in animal feeds
which are directly passed into animal foods like meat, poultry, fish, eggs, and
dairy products and from foods to the consumers. In organic farming these
practices are banned and animals feed outside in natural surroundings.
Chapter 15
Agriculture — II: Food
Crops
Class 10 - Total Geography Morning
Star
Answer the following questions
Question 1(a)
Name
the three cropping seasons in India.
Answer
The
three cropping seasons in India are-
- Kharif
- Rabi
- Zaid
Question 1(b)
Which
is the most important method of rice cultivation in India? Why?
Answer
Japanese
method of rice cultivation is highly adapted in India because the method
includes the use of high yielding varieties of seeds called Japonica. Initial
raising of the seedling is done in the nursery and is protected from initial
infections and then transferred to fields and planted in rows to make weeding
easy.
This
method ensures higher yield.
Question 1(c)
Name
the two states where rice is grown as a cash crop. Why?
Answer
In
Punjab and West Bengal, the farmers cultivate rice as a cash or commercial
crop. Rice is grown in almost all states of India except Gujarat and Rajasthan.
Rice can feed more people compared to same amount of any other food grains.
Question 1(d)
Give
three points of difference between upland and lowland rice.
Answer
|
Upland
rice |
Lowland rice |
|
It is grown on mountainous regions. |
It is grown in low-lying areas. |
|
It is sown in March-April and harvested in September-October. |
It is sown in June and harvested in October. |
|
The entire crop is used locally. |
The produce of rice is used for local consumption as well as supplied
to other regions. |
Question 2(a)
Why
are cereals referred to as 'staff of life'?
Answer
Cereals
are referred to as 'staff of life' because of their simple form of cultivation
and their high nutritional value. They have formed the basic diet of mankind.
Question 2(b)
State
two geographical conditions suitable for the cultivation of rice?
Answer
Two
geographical conditions suitable for the cultivation of rice are-
- Rice grows best in warm and humid areas. The critical mean
temperature for flowering and fertilisation ranges from 16°C to 20°C
whereas during ripening, the range is from 18°C to 32°C.
- Rice requires good rainfall in the range of 150 to 300 cm.
Question 2(c)
(i)
Name the state that produces the highest quantity of rice in India.
(ii)
State two advantages of growing rice on lowlands.
Answer
(i)
West Bengal produces the highest quantity of rice in India.
(ii)
Two advantages of growing rice on lowlands are-
- It is easy to irrigate rice crop and water can be easily
accumulated on low lands.
- Soil in the lowlands is more fertile as compared to uplands.
Question 2(d)
Give a
geographical reason for each of the following:
(i)
Wheat cultivation is confined to the northern parts of the country.
(ii)
Punjab is the leading producer of wheat in India.
(iii)
Government of India is encouraging cultivation of pulses.
Answer
(i)
Wheat cultivation is confined to the northern parts of the country because it
grows best in cool, moist climate and ripens in warm, dry climate. Also, the
winter rain occurring in northern India is beneficial for the crop.
(ii)
Punjab is the leading producer of wheat in India because the climate of Punjab
is well suited for the cultivation of wheat. During winters, the temperature of
the region remains between 10°C to 25°C. Punjab also receives light showers
during the winter months from the western disturbances. Such a climate is
suited for wheat cultivation.
(iii)
Government of India is encouraging cultivation of pulses because pulses being
leguminous crops, fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil and increase the natural
fertility of soil. Also, pulses form an important part of the Indian diet,
especially for those who consume starchy vegetation.
Question 3(a)
What
kind of soil is needed for the cultivation of wheat?
Answer
Wheat
grows best in well drained loams and clay loams.
Question 3(b)
State
two geographical conditions necessary for the growth of wheat in India.
Answer
Two
geographical conditions necessary for the growth of wheat in India are-
- For the cultivation of wheat, temperature in the range of 10-15°C
is suitable for sowing and 20-25°C during harvest.
- About 80 cm of annual rainfall is ideal for wheat cultivation.
Question 3(c)
(i)
Name two states that grow wheat extensively.
(ii)
What climatic features have helped these states in this respect?
Answer
(i)
Punjab and Uttar Pradesh grow wheat extensively.
(ii)
Climatic features that have helped these states in this respect are-
- Cool and moist climate for sowing and warm, dry climate for
ripening. Ideal temperature ranges from 10-15°C at the time of sowing and
20-25°C during harvesting.
- Annual rainfall of about 80 cm. Winter rain caused due to western
disturbances are beneficial for the crop.
Question 3(d)
Give
three differences between the climatic conditions needed for wheat and rice
cultivation.
Answer
|
Climatic
Conditions |
Wheat |
Rice |
|
Temperature during sowing |
10 to 15°C |
16-20°C |
|
Temperature during ripening/harvest |
20-25°C |
18-32°C |
|
Rainfall |
About 80 cm |
About 150 - 300 cm |
Question 4(a)
What
is meant by "transplantation"? State two of its advantages.
Answer
Transplantation
is a method of rice cultivation common in deltaic and flood plain regions. The
seedlings are first grown in nurseries and after four to five weeks when
saplings attain 25-30 cm of height, they are transplanted into prepared rice
fields in groups of four to six at a distance of 30-45 cm. In the beginning,
the field is flooded with a 2-3 cm deep water. Subsequently, the depth of water
level is increased to 4-6 cm till the crop matures.
Two
advantages of transplantation method are-
- Only the healthy plants are picked for resowing in the field and
unhealthy plants are discarded.
- Weeds are removed while resowing.
Question 4(b)
How
does the cultivation of pulses usually help in restoration of fertility of the
soil?
Answer
Pulses
being leguminous crops, fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil and increase the
natural fertility of soil. Hence, pulses are usually rotated with other crops
to maintain or restore soil fertility.
Question 4(c)
(i)
Why are pulses grown as rotational crops?
(ii)
Explain why India is the largest consumer of pulses.
Answer
(i)
Pulses are grown as rotational crops as pulses being leguminous crops, fix
atmospheric nitrogen in the soil and increase the natural fertility of soil.
(ii)
India is the largest consumer of pulses because pulses form a very important
part of the Indian diet, especially for those who consume starchy vegetarian
diet. This is because pulses provide vegetable protein.
Question 4(d)
State
three methods of growing rice.
Answer
Three
methods of growing rice are-
- The dry method of cultivation
- The puddled or wet method
- Transplanting method
Question 5(a)
What
are millets?
Answer
The
term 'millets' refers to a number of inferior grains like jowar, bajra and
ragi, which serve as food grains for the poorer sections of the society.
Question 5(b)
Why
are millets referred to as 'food grains of the poor'?
Answer
Millets
are known as 'food grains of the poor' because these are coarse grains.
Further, these do not require adequate water and can be grown in infertile soil
owing to its rocky or sandy character.
Question 5(c)
Why
are millets known as dry crops?
Answer
Millets
are known as dry crops because they have a very short growing season and they
can be grown under dry and high temperature conditions. Also, millets do not
need rain or water and can survive in drought and other extreme conditions.
Question 5(d)
In
what way are the millets different from rice?
Answer
Rice
requires high temperature with adequate water for irrigation while millets can
be grown on infertile soil and does not require much water for growth.
Millets
have a higher nutritional value than rice.
Question 6(a)
In
which region is ragi grown in India? Why?
Answer
Karnataka
is the leading producer of ragi in the country followed by Tamil Nadu,
Uttarakhand, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Jharkhand, Rajasthan and
Gujarat.
Ragi
is grown in these states as the red, light black and sandy loams in Karnataka
and Tamil Nadu and the well drained alluvial loams of Uttarakhand, Jharkhand
and Gujarat are suitable for the cultivation of ragi. Also, the climatic
conditions favour the cultivation of this crop.
Question 6(b)
In
which part of the year is wheat grown in India? Why?
Answer
Wheat
is a rabi crop and mostly grown during the cold weather season. It is usually
sown in October and continues till the mid of November. It is harvested by the
end of January in the south, and by March-April in the north.
It is
so because wheat grows best in cool moist climate and ripens in warm, dry climate.
Question 6(c)
Why is
wheat not grown in the eastern and in the extreme southern parts of India? Name
the state that is the largest producer of wheat.
Answer
Wheat
is not grown in the eastern and in the extreme southern parts of India because
the temperature required at the time of sowing wheat is 10-15°C which is not
possible in these regions.
Also,
wheat grows best in well drained loams and clay loam whereas the southern and
eastern India have laterite and red soil.
Question 6(d)
Which
is a useful 'rotation crop'? Give reasons to support your answer.
Answer
Pulses
are useful rotation crops as pulses being leguminous crops, fix atmospheric
nitrogen in the soil and increase the natural fertility of soil.
Question 7
Study
the picture given below and answer the following questions:
(a)
Name the crop which is being planted. Give one benefit of this method of
planting this crop.
(b)
Name the other method of planting the crop. In which area is this method
practised?
(c)
Mention the climatic conditions which favour the cultivation of the crop being
planted.
Answer
(a)
Rice is being planted. A benefit of this method of plantation is that this
method gives higher yield.
(b)
Another method of planting the crop is drilling method. It is practised in
Peninsular India.
(c)
The climatic conditions suitable for the cultivation of rice are-
- Rice grows best in warm and humid areas. The critical mean
temperature for flowering and fertilisation ranges from 16°C to 20°C
whereas during ripening, the range is from 18°C to 32°C.
- Rice requires good rainfall in the range of 150 to 300 cm.
Question 7(d)
Give a
geographical reason for each of the following:
(i)
Rice is not the main crop in the Deccan Plateau.
(ii)
Punjab is the largest producer of rice despite deficient rainfall.
(iii)
Wheat grows well in loamy soil.
Answer
(i)
Rice is not the main crop in the Deccan Plateau because the soil required for
rice cultivation is clayey or loamy soil while deccan plateau has black soil.
Also, rice requires adequate water for irrigation and this region falls in the
rain shadow region of the western ghats.
(ii)
Punjab is the largest producer of rice despite deficient rainfall because here,
97% of the rice area is irrigated and due to higher input of High Yielding
Variety seeds, fertilisers and mechanisation the per hectare yield is the
highest.
(iii)
Wheat grows well in loamy soil because loamy soil is a mixture of sand, silt
and clay which provides ideal nutrition for wheat. The fertile, well-drained
loamy soil allows for rapid absorption of water and air by plant roots, which
encourages growth of the wheat plant.
Chapter 16
Agriculture — III: Cash Crops (1)
Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star
Answer
the following questions
Question 1(a)
Name one state in North and one
in South India where sugarcane is grown extensively.
Answer
In North India, sugarcane is
grown extensively in Uttar Pradesh and in South India, sugarcane is grown
extensively in Tamil Nadu.
Question 1(b)
Why is the sugarcane production
increasing in Maharashtra?
Answer
Sugarcane production is
increasing in Maharashtra because Maharashtra has a longer harvesting season
and better quality of crop owing to the favourable maritime climate free from
the effects of summer loo and winter frost, sufficient irrigation and new
farming techniques.
Question 1(c)
Explain briefly the Sett method
of planting sugarcane.
Answer
In Sett method, new canes are
usually planted by taking cuttings from the old plants. These cuttings, known
as setts, quickly become established and after a few days buds sprout to form
new stalks. Four to five stalks grow from each cutting. The sugarcane takes
anything from 8 months to a year to mature.
Question 1(d)
What is Ratooning? State two
advantages of Ratooning.
Answer
Ratooning is a method of
cultivation of sugarcane. In this method, during the first harvest, the
sugarcane is cut leaving a little bit of the stalk in the soil with the roots.
The stalk soon puts out new shoots or ratoons. The second or any other
successive crop obtained from the roots of the leftover crop is called ratoon.
Two advantages of ratooning are-
- Crop need not be planted
again, it saves labour.
- The ratoon matures early.
Question 2(a)
How does heavy rainfall affect
the quality of sugarcane?
Answer
Heavy rainfall affects the
quality of sugarcane adversely as the sucrose content decreases if heavy rains
continue for long.
Question 2(b)
Why does the cultivation of
sugarcane require cheap labour?
Answer
The cultivation of sugarcane
requires plenty of cheap labour as most of the work is done by hand. The crop
is cut by hand using a long curved knife.
Question 2(c)
Why do the stalks of sugarcane
need to be cut as near as possible to the ground?
Answer
The stalks of sugarcane need to
be cut as near as possible to the ground because the greatest accumulation of
sucrose is in the base of the stem.
Question 2(d)
State any three problems faced by
sugarcane cultivators.
Answer
Three problems faced by sugarcane
cultivators are-
- Sugarcane is a soil
exhausting crop and therefore, the cost of fertilizers increases the cost
of production.
- It requires high input of
irrigation means.
- The cost of transport
increases the cost of production.
Question 3(a)
What extra care needs to be taken
for soil health when sugarcane is cultivated?
Answer
Extra care needs to be taken for
soil health when sugarcane is cultivated because sugarcane exhausts the
fertility of the soil. Hence, the soil is supplemented with manures and
nitrogenous fertilizers.
Question 3(b)
Mention the climate that is
suitable for sugarcane cultivation.
Answer
The climate that is suitable for
sugarcane cultivation is as follows-
- Temperature — Sugarcane grows best
in areas with 20°C to 26°C temperature. Frost is fatal for the crop. Short
cool dry winter season during ripening and harvesting is ideal.
- Rainfall — Sugarcane grows well
in tropical regions with 100-150 cm of rainfall well distributed
throughout the year. Irrigation is necessary in areas with lower rainfall
or even in areas of higher rainfall during the long dry spells.
Question 3(c)
What advantage does South India
have over the North with reference to sugarcane cultivation?
Answer
South India has a higher yield
per hectare of sugarcane because of a longer harvesting season and better
quality of crop owing to the favourable maritime climate free from the effects
of summer loo and winter frost, sufficient irrigation and new farming techniques.
Question 3(d)
Mention two different ways in
which sugarcane is propagated.
Answer
Two different ways in which sugarcane
is propagated are-
- Sett method
- Ratooning
Question 4(a)
What conditions of temperature
and rainfall favour the growth of groundnut?
Answer
The climatic conditions that
favour the growth of groundnut are-
- Temperature — Groundnut requires
about 20°C to 25°C temperature. Dry weather is needed during the time of
ripening.
- Rainfall — It requires light to
moderate rainfall between 50 to 100 cm. Rainfall should be well
distributed.
Question 4(b)
Which two states in India are the
leading producers of groundnut? Why is groundnut mostly grown in Peninsular
India?
Answer
Gujarat and Tami Nadu in India
are the leading producers of groundnut.
Groundnut is mostly grown in
Peninsular India because the red, yellow and black cotton soils of Peninsular
India suit it well. Such light soils are essential as the nut ripens in the
soil.
Question 4(c)
Give three uses of groundnut.
Answer
Three uses of groundnut are-
- It is used for the
manufacture of hydrogenated oil.
- It is used for making
margarine, medical emulsions and soap.
- Groundnut oil is used as a
cooking medium and the nuts are eaten raw, roasted, salted or sweetened.
Question 4(d)
What is the residue after
crushing oilseeds called? Give two of its uses.
Answer
The residue after crushing
oilseeds is called oilcake.
Oilcake is used as a fodder for
animals and also serves a good manure in the fields.
Question 5(a)
Name any two oilseeds grown in
India. Which oilseed is grown as a rainfed crop?
Answer
Two oilseeds grown in India are
groundnut and linseed.
Groundnut is grown as a rainfed
crop.
Question 5(b)
State the conditions of
temperature and rainfall necessary for the growth of mustard.
Answer
The climatic conditions necessary
for the growth of mustard are-
- Temperature — Mustard grows best
in cool climate. Ideal temperature ranges from 10°C to 20°C.
- Rainfall — The crop requires
rainfall varying between 25 to 40 cm.
Question 5(c)
(i) Which soil type favours the
growth of mustard? Name an area where it grows.
(ii) Mention two uses of mustard.
Answer
(i) Mustard can be grown on loams
but slightly heavier soils are preferred.
Mustard is widely grown in the
Sutlej-Ganga plain.
(ii) Two uses of mustard are-
- Its seeds are crushed for
edible oil.
- The oilcake of mustard is an
important cattle feed.
Question 5(d)
Mention the climatic conditions
necessary to grow soya bean. State two uses of soya bean.
Answer
The climatic conditions necessary
to grow soya bean are-
- Temperature — Soyabean requires
temperature in the range of 13°C to 24°C. Temperature above 13°C is
necessary for the normal growth of soyabean.
- Rainfall — It grows in regions
with 40 cm to 60 cm rainfall. The rainfall should be well distributed
throughout the growing season.
Two uses of Soyabean are-
- It is eaten as vegetable or
made into soya sauce.
- Due to its high protein
content, it is consumed as soya milk or tofu (cheese) as a substitute for
animal protein.
Chapter 17
Agriculture — IV: Cash Crops (2)
Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star
Answer
the following questions
Question 1(a)
What are fibre crops? Give two
examples of plant fibre crops.
Answer
Fibre crops are crops that are
primarily grown for obtaining fibre. The fibre is traditionally used to make
paper, cloth, or rope.
Two fibre crops are cotton and
jute.
Question 1(b)
What conditions of soil favour
the growth of cotton? Why?
Answer
Cotton grows well in the
well-drained clayey soils containing lime and phosphates. The deep and medium
black soils are considered ideal for cotton cultivation since black soil has a
high level of clay and good water holding capacity that makes it suitable for
the growth of cotton.
Since cotton crops exhaust the
fertility of soil rapidly, regular application of manures and fertilizers to
the soil is necessary.
Question 1(c)
(i) Name the two chief
cotton-growing areas in India.
(ii) Which climatic conditions
favour the cultivation of cotton?
Answer
(i) Two chief cotton-growing
areas in India are-
- The north western Deccan on
the fertile Black cotton soil
- The central and southern
Deccan of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(ii) The climatic conditions that
favour the cultivation of cotton are:
- Temperature — Cotton requires
uniformly high temperatures between 21°C and 30°C. A long growing period
of at least 200 frost-free days is required for the plant to mature.
- Rainfall — Rainfall should be
moderate, ranging between 50 to 75 cm. Sufficient rainfall is required during
the early stages of the growth, but a sunny and dry weather is required
after flowering.
Question 1(d)
(i) How is frost harmful for the
growth of cotton plant?
(ii) Why is dry weather necessary
at the time of harvesting cotton?
Answer
(i) The cotton plant is extremely
sensitive to frost and late spring or early autumn frosts can kill the plant
and destroy the crop. The soil temperature below 20°C reduces root growth thus
retarding plant growth.
(ii) Dry weather is necessary at
the time of harvesting cotton as rainfall during boll-opening and harvesting
periods is harmful for the plants as it makes them vulnerable to pests and
diseases.
Question 2(a)
What advantages does Long Staple
Cotton have?
Answer
The advantages of Long Staple
Cotton is that the longer the cotton fiber, the stronger, softer, and more
durable the resulting fabric. Long staple cotton is long, fine and shiny. It is
used for making fine and superior quality cloth.
Fabrics made of long-staple
cottons fray less, pill less, wrinkle less, and even fade less than fabrics
made with their short-staple counterparts.
Question 2(b)
Why Gujarat and Maharashtra are the
leading producers of Cotton?
Answer
Gujarat and Maharashtra are the
leading producers of Cotton because the moist climate of both the states is
well suited for cotton cultivation and the temperature is ideal for the cotton
industries as the cotton threads tend to break in dry climate while they rarely
break in moist and humid climate.
Question 2(c)
Describe the process or stages in
Ginning of Cotton.
Answer
The stages in Ginning of Cotton
are-
- The cotton first goes
through the dryers to reduce moisture content.
- Then, it goes through the
cleaning equipment to remove foreign matter.
- The cotton is then air
conveyed to gin stands where its circular saws pull the lint through
closely spaced ribs that prevent the seed from passing through.
- The lint is removed from the
saw teeth by rotating brushes and then compressed into bales.
Question 2(d)
What are the problems associated
with the growing of cotton?
Answer
The problems associated with the
growing of cotton are-
- Lack of financial facility
- Shortage of labour
- Inadequate water supply
- Severity of diseases
- Lack of technology
- High cost of inputs
- Low quality of fertilizers
and pesticides
- Poor quality of seeds
Question 3(a)
State the soil conditions that
favour the growth of jute.
Answer
Jute grows best on the soil
enriched by new alluvium brought by river inundation. Loamy soils are most
suitable for jute production as the clay particles of loam help to hold the
plant nutrients preventing them from getting washed away by water.
The clayey soil gives the
heaviest yield. Sandy soils produce coarse fibres.
Question 3(b)
In what way is Ganga-Brahmaputra
Delta suitable for jute cultivation?
Answer
Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta has loamy
soil which is most suitable for jute production as the clay particles of loam
help to hold the plant nutrients preventing them from getting washed away by
water.
Question 3(c)
(i) Why is jute retted?
(ii) How is this done?
Answer
(i) Jute is retted because
retting softens the outer bark and facilitates the early removal of the fibre
within.
(ii) Retting was once done by
submerging the jute into ponds and streams but is now done in special tanks.
Chemical additives help in the retting operation.
Question 3(d)
Describe briefly the processing
of jute.
Answer
Jute is harvested by hand, by
pulling up the stem. It is dried and striped of unwanted leaves and is put in
water and allowed to rot. This process is known as retting.
Retting was once done by
submerging the jute into ponds and streams but is now done in special tanks.
Chemical additives help in the retting operation.
The fleshy part of the stem is
eventually decomposed and the fibres are then scraped to remove any remaining
pieces of soft vegetable matter. After drying, the fibres are loosely spun and
woven, and are used in making sacks and bags, carpet, upholstery, etc.
Question 4(a)
Why is mesta an inferior
substitute for jute? Where is it grown?
Answer
Mesta is an inferior substitute
for jute as the fibre is more coarse and not as strong as jute fibre.
Mesta is cultivated in some parts
of Assam, Bihar, Odisha and Kerala.
Question 4(b)
By what other name is jute
referred to? Why?
Answer
Jute is also called 'Golden
fibre' as it provides huge revenue to the government.
Question 4(c)
(i) Why are floods beneficial for
the growth of jute?
(ii) Mention one advantage and
one disadvantage of delay in jute harvest.
Answer
(i) Floods are beneficial for the
growth of jute because plenty of water is needed for the process of retting and
a new soil cover is available.
(ii) One advantage of delay in
jute harvest is that it adds to the yield and one disadvantage of delay in jute
harvest is that it usually produces coarse fibre.
Question 4(d)
State any three uses of jute.
Answer
Three uses of jute are-
- It is used for manufacturing
rough quality cloth, sacks and other packaging material.
- It is used for making many
utility products like carpets, rugs, etc.
- It provides a huge revenue
to the government.
Question 5(a)
State any two conditions that
favour the growth of tea in the Nilgiris.
Answer
Two conditions that favour the
growth of tea in the Nilgiris are-
- The slopes protect the crop
from annual inundations and stagnant water during the rains.
- The high altitude provides
the required climatic conditions- temperature ranging from 24°C to 30°C
and annual rainfall of atleast 150 cm, well distributed throughout the
year.
Question 5(b)
State the advantages of growing
tea plants on hill slopes.
Answer
Tea plantations require even
distribution of water without any water logging. Hill slopes provide proper
drainage and prevents water logging problems. This is the reason why tea
plantations are usually grown on hill slopes.
Question 5(c)
(i) Name the different varieties
of tea grown in India.
(ii) Why is blending necessary
for tea?
Answer
(i) The different varieties of
tea grown in India are-
- Black tea
- Green tea
- Oolong tea
- Brick tea
(ii) Blending is necessary for
tea to give it a special aroma and make many proprietary brands.
Question 5(d)
(i) Name the leading producer of
tea in India. State two factors that have helped it to become the leading state
in tea production.
(ii) Define the following terms:
- Clonal Planting
- Pruning
Answer
(i) Assam is the leading producer
of tea in India.
Two factors that have helped
Assam to become the leading state in tea production are-
- No stagnant water due to
hilly terrain
- Availability of cheap labor
(ii) The definitions of Clonal
Planting & Pruning are given below:
- Clonal Planting — Tea shrubs can be
grown in nurseries from cuttings of high yielding varieties. This is known
as clonal planting.
- Pruning — Pruning means
plucking of tea leaves. Frequent pruning encourages the rapid production
of fresh leaves and shoots. Pruning of tea bush starts after two years in
order to maintain the height and diameter of the plant limited to one
metre.
Question 6(a)
Give two climatic factors that
favour the cultivation of coffee.
Answer
Two climatic factors that favour
the cultivation of coffee are-
- Temperature — Coffee plant
requires warm climate with temperature ranging from 15°C to 28°C and a
moderate supply of moisture.
- Rainfall — During the period of
growth, the plant requires 150 - 200 cm of annual rainfall.
Question 6(b)
Name the three varieties of
coffee plants grown on commercial scale in India. Name one state where coffee
is grown extensively.
Answer
The three varieties of coffee
plants grown on commercial scale in India are-
- Coffee Robusta
- Coffee Liberica
- Coffee Arabica
Coffee is grown extensively in
Karnataka.
Question 6(c)
Describe briefly the Dry
Parchment method of processing of coffee.
Answer
In the Dry Parchment method of
processing of coffee, the following process is followed-
- The harvested cherries are
sorted and cleaned to separate the unripe, overripe and damaged cherries
and remove dirt, soil, twigs and leaves.
- The coffee cherries are then
spread out in the sun to dry.
- The beans are then fermented
by drying in the sun for a week.
- After drying, the machines
peel off the two layers of inner husks.
- They are sorted according to
size and quality and then packed in sacks for use.
- The beans are roasted at
temperatures of about 99°C and then grounded into coffee powder which is
used to make beverage. Roasting gives it brown colour and characteristic
aroma and taste.
Question 6(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Coffee is grown on the slopes
of the hills in Peninsular India.
(ii) Coffee estates have coffee
inter-planted with orange trees, cardamom and pepper vines.
(iii) Tea bushes are pruned at
regular intervals.
Answer
(i) Coffee is grown on the slopes
of the hills in Peninsular India to avoid water logging and to supply even
water to the plants. Soils are also fertile in this area with sufficient amount
of rainfall of about 150 cm on average, necessary for the growth of coffee
plantations.
(ii) Coffee plant is susceptible
to direct sunrays. So, Coffee estates have coffee inter-planted with orange
trees, cardamom and pepper vines to provide shade to the coffee plant and at
the same time generate extra income for the farmers.
(iii) Tea bushes are pruned at
regular interval to maintain the height and diameter of the plant limited to
one metre. Frequent pruning encourages the rapid production of fresh leaves and
shoots.
Chapter 18
Manufacturing Industries (Agro-Based)
Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star
Give the
difference between the following
Question 1
Micro Enterprise and Medium
Enterprise
Answer
|
Micro
Enterprise |
Medium Enterprise |
|
In these enterprises, the investment in plant and machinery or
equipment does not exceed one crore rupees. |
In these enterprises, the investment in plant and machinery or
equipment does not exceed fifty crore rupees. |
|
Annual turnover does not exceed five crore rupees. |
Annual turnover does not exceed two hundred and fifty crore rupees. |
Question 2
Heavy and Light industries
Answer
|
Heavy
Industries |
Light Industries |
|
These industries produce capital goods and consumer durables which are
quite bulky. |
These industries produce goods which are light in weight like cycles,
sewing machines etc. |
|
They require huge capital, large quantity of raw material, scientific
knowledge, sophisticated machinery, etc. |
They require less capital and less number of workers than the heavy
industries. |
Question 3
Basic and Secondary industries
Answer
|
Basic
Industries |
Secondary Industries |
|
These industries form the core industries on which other industries
depend for their manufacturing. |
These industries process the basic raw materials into primary goods
for direct use by the consumers. |
|
For example, iron and steel industry, petroleum industry. |
For example, textiles, sugar, paper making etc. |
Answer
the following questions
Question 1(a)
What is the difference between
Agro-based and Mineral-based industry?
Answer
|
Agro-based
Industry |
Mineral-based Industry |
|
This group of industries depends on the raw material produced by the
agricultural sector. |
These industries use minerals, both metallic and non-metallic, as raw
material. |
|
For example- cotton, jute and textile industries, sugar industry, tea
industry, coffee industry, etc. |
For example- iron and steel, heavy engineering and machine tool,
cement, basic and light chemicals, fertilisers, etc. |
Question 1(b)
Classify industries on the basis
of the nature of products. Give one example of each.
Answer
On the basis of the nature of
products, industries can be classified as-
- Heavy industries like ship
building industry.
- Light industries like
electronic goods industry.
Question 1(c)
(i) Mention two advantages of
setting up a small scale industry.
(ii) Give two points of
difference between a public sector and a private sector industry.
Answer
(i) Two advantages of setting up
a small scale industry are-
- Less capital is required.
- These industries make use of
indigenous raw material.
(ii) The differences are-
|
Public
Sector |
Private Sector |
|
These industries are owned and managed by the Central Government or
the State Government. They include public utility industries like railways,
post & telegraph, oil refineries, heavy engineering industries, defence
establishments, etc. |
These industries are owned and managed by an individual or group of
individuals. |
|
For example, Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Gas Authority of
India Limited (GAIL), etc. |
For example, Reliance Industries Limited (RIL), Infosys, etc. |
Question 1(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Sugar mills are located close
to sugarcane growing areas.
(ii) Mumbai is known as the
'Cottonopolis of India'.
(iii) The silk industry has a
small market.
Answer
(i) Sugar mills are located close
to sugarcane growing areas because sugarcane is a weight losing crop, i.e., its
sucrose content goes on decreasing with time. Therefore, it is necessary to
crush sugarcane within 24 hours of harvesting.
(ii) Mumbai is known as the
'Cottonpolis of India' because Mumbai has become the most important centre of
cotton textile in the country due to reasons like proximity to raw materials,
favourable climatic conditions, good transport and port facilities, enough
labour force, adequate capital, power and a huge market for cotton textiles.
(iii) The silk industry has a
small market because silk industry faces competition from artificial silk which
is cheaper and better in quality. Moreover, the changes in prices of raw silk
badly affect both the weavers and the silk industry.
Question 2(a)
Name two by-products of the sugar
industry. Give one use of each.
Answer
Two by-products of the sugar
industry are-
- Bagasse, the leftover cane
after crushing, is used for producing steam which is used as a source of
power for sugar industry.
- Press mud is used for making
wax, carbon paper and shoe polish.
Question 2(b)
Why is the sugar industry highly
dispersed in India?
Answer
The sugar industry is highly
dispersed in India because sugarcane is cultivated throughout the country.
Hence, sugarcane industries are spread in the country near to the sugarcane
fields.
Also, the area under sugarcane
cultivation is limited due to the pressure of food crops. Thus, the sugar
factories are highly dispersed even in areas which have large percentage of
land under sugarcane cultivation.
Question 2(c)
Give three important reasons
which have made Maharashtra the leading producer of sugar in India.
Answer
Three important reasons which
have made Maharashtra the leading producer of sugar in India are-
- The maritime climate of
Maharashtra is ideal for the cultivation of sugarcane.
- Availability of excellent
transport facilities in relation to export markets.
- The sugarcane farms are
managed by co-operative societies which have access to better facilities
like better seeds, fertilisers, irrigation etc.
Question 2(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) India produces very little
cane-sugar though it is one of the largest producers of sugarcane in the world.
(ii) Higher output of sugar in
South India.
(iii) Sericulture flourishes in
Karnataka.
Answer
(i) India produces very little
cane sugar though it is one of the largest producer of sugarcane in the world
because the quality of sugarcane produced in the country is low. Besides, most
people in rural areas prefer to use 'gur' and 'khandasari' instead of white
sugar. So much of sugarcane that is grown is used for making 'gur' and
'khandasari'.
(ii) There is higher output of
sugar in South India because the yield per hectare is high is southern India.
The sucrose content in sugarcane is high in southern India as compared to that
in northern India. Moreover, the southern states have installed new mills where
productivity is high and cost of production is low.
(iii) Sericulture flourishes in
Karnataka because Karnataka has favourable climate for rearing silkworms.
Karnataka has established nurseries, silk farms and has licensed seed
distributors to promote Sericulture.
Question 3(a)
Mention any two features of the
cotton textile industry in India.
Answer
Two features of the cotton
textile industry in India are-
- Cotton textile industry
directly or indirectly supports more than nearly 40% of the country's
labour force.
- It is the oldest and the
largest industry which is found in almost all the states of India.
Question 3(b)
Why have Mumbai and Ahmedabad
emerged as the important cotton manufacturing centres?
Answer
Mumbai and Ahmedabad have emerged
as the important cotton manufacturing centres because of the following reasons-
- Climatic conditions — The humid coastal
climate favours the textile making without breaking the thread.
- Transport facilities — These states are
well connected through rail and road links with cotton growing areas of
Maharashtra and Gujarat and also through sea routes with the foreign
markets.
- Proximity to raw material — The supply of raw
cotton for the mills is supplied by the cotton producing areas of the
Deccan Plateau that lie close to these mills.
- Port Facilities — Good port facilities
facilitate import of capital goods, chemicals etc. and the export of
finished goods.
- Labour — The states have
enough labour force from within or nearby states.
- Capital — Both the states have
easy access to capital and financial resources.
- Power — Power is supplied in
Mumbai by the Tata Hydroelectric system while Ahmedabad gets its power
from Ukai and Kakrapara hydroelectric projects.
- Market — There is a huge
market for the cotton cloth in these states and in the southern states of
the country because of the hot climate which prevails in these areas.
Question 3(c)
State any three problems faced by
the cotton industry in India.
Answer
Three problems faced by the
cotton industry in India are-
- Shortage of Raw Material — There is a shortage
of raw material, particularly of long staple cotton.
- Shortage of Power — The mills are facing
acute shortage of power. This leads to loss of man hours, low productivity
and loss in the mills.
- Sick Industrial Units — The industry faces
constant threat of sickness and consequent closure. These sick units
require heavy financial investments for replacement and modernisation
purposes.
Question 3(d)
What is sericulture? State any
two problems faced by the silk industry.
Answer
Tne rearing of Silkworms for Silk
production is known as Sericulture.
Two problems faced by the silk
industry are-
- Competition from artificial
silk which is cheaper and better in quality.
- The changes in prices of raw
silk badly affect both the weavers and the silk industry.
Question 4(a)
State any two geographical
features favourable for setting an industry.
Answer
Two geographical features
favourable for setting an industry are-
- Raw materials — The location of the
industry is guided by the availability of raw material in a particular
area.
- Transport — Good transport
facilities are required to carry raw materials to the manufacturing units
and finished products to the market.
Question 4(b)
Name two major silk producing
centres in Karnataka and West Bengal.
Answer
Two major silk producing centres
in Karnataka are Bengaluru and Mysore.
Two major silk producing centres
in West Bengal are Malda and Murshidabad.
Question 4(c)
(i) Name the state having the
largest production of non-mulberry silk.
(ii) Name the type of silk
available in these states: Assam and Bihar.
Answer
(i) Assam is the largest producer
of non-mulberry silk in the country.
(ii) Assam provides non-mulberry
silk (tasar, eri and muga). Assam is also the only muga producing region of the
country. Bihar provides tasar silk.
Question 4(d)
Give a geographical reason for
each of the following:
(i) Sugarcane is a weight losing
commodity.
(ii) Uttar Pradesh has been
relegated to second place in terms of sugar production.
(iii) Ahmedabad is known as the
'Manchester of India'.
Answer
(i) Sugarcane is a weight losing
commodity because its sucrose content goes on decreasing with time. Therefore,
it is necessary to crush sugarcane within 24 hours of harvesting.
(ii) Uttar Pradesh has been
relegated to second place in terms of sugar production because of old mills,
management and labour problems and shorter crushing period.
(iii) Ahmedabad is known as the
'Manchester of India' because it is the second largest cotton manufacturing
city in India.
Mineral Based Industry
Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star
Answer
the following questions
Question 1(a)
Which is the largest
mineral-based industry in India? Why is it called the backbone of all
industries?
Answer
Iron and Steel industry is the
largest mineral-based industry in India.
It is called the backbone of all
industries because it provides raw material for making industrial machinery,
electrical machinery, defence equipment, railway tracks, railway engines,
bridges, dams, shops, automobiles, houses and a host of other industrial and
consumer goods.
Question 1(b)
What is an integrated steel
plant? Give one example.
Answer
An integrated steel plant is the
one in which all the processes from providing raw materials, basic fuels, water
supply, etc., to the conversion of steel, rolling, etc., are all done at one
place.
For example- Bhilai Iron and
Steel Plant, Bhilai.
Question 1(c)
State any three factors which
affect the location of an integrated steel plant.
Answer
Three factors which affect the
location of an integrated steel plant are-
- Availability of raw material — Usually the
integrated iron and steel plants are located near the source of raw
material.
- Power supply — Adequate power
supply facilities are important for working with various machines.
- Labour force — Availability of
cheap labour force is also important.
Question 1(d)
(i) How is it advantageous for a
mini steel plant to use electric furnaces?
(ii) How is it advantageous for a
mini steel plant to be located far from the source of the raw material?
Answer
(i) It is advantageous for a mini
steel plant to use electric furnaces because of the following reasons-
- Dependency on electric power
does not cause pollution.
- It conserves coking coal.
- Less capital investment is
required.
(ii) It is advantageous for a
mini steel plant to be located far from the source of the raw material because
of the following reasons-
- Mini steel plants can be
distributed all over the country and cater to the demands of the local
market.
- They reduce pressure on the
large integrated steel plants.
- They use scrap iron as raw
material which is easily available and is comparatively cheap.
Question 2(a)
Name two major steel plants in
the Public Sector. Name one steel plant that was set up with Russian
collaboration.
Answer
Two major steel plants in the
Public Sector are-
- Visakhapatnam Steel Plant,
Andhra Pradesh
- Rourkela Steel Plant, Odisha
Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant was
set up with Russian collaboration.
Question 2(b)
What are mini steel plants?
Answer
Mini Steel plants generally use
ferrous scrap, pig iron or sponge iron as their raw material. They work through
electric furnaces and have a capacity from 10,000 tonnes to about 5 lakh tonnes
per year.
Their period of construction and
gestation is also short. They are distributed in different parts of the country
particularly in areas away from the integrated steel plants.
Question 2(c)
Mention three factors which have
helped Jamshedpur to develop into India's major centre of steel production.
Answer
Three factors which have helped
Jamshedpur to develop into India's major centre of steel production are-
- Proximity to raw material — Jamshedpur is
located close to -
- the iron ore deposits in Gurumahisani
mines in Mayurbhanj district, Odisha and Noamundi mines in Singhbhum
district, Jharkhand
- manganese deposits from
Joda in Keonjhar district
- limestone, dolomite and
fire clay from Sundargarh district, Odisha
- coal deposits in Jhari and
Bokaro coalfields
- Cheap Labour — Labour is employed
from the densely populated valley of Ganga, mostly from the states of
Bihar, West Bengal, Jharkhand, Chattisgarh and Uttar Pradesh.
- Transport Facilities — Jamshedpur is well
connected with roads and railways to the other parts of the country.
Transport is facilitated by the Eastern Railways. It is also connected
with the Kolkata port for exporting of finished steel.
Question 2(d)
Name the steel plant located in
Andhra Pradesh. What two advantages this steel plant have over the other steel
plants in the public sector?
Answer
Visakhapatnam Steel plant is
located in Andhra Pradesh.
Two advantages this steel plant
has over the other steel plants in the public sector are-
- Visakhapatnam Steel Plant is
a modern integrated steel plant with the latest technology and some of the
largest units.
- Visakhapatnam’s modern
protected harbour and deep land locked port facilitates import of raw
materials and export of finished goods.
Question 3(a)
What are petrochemicals?
Answer
Petrochemicals are important
organic chemicals derived from petroleum products, LPG and coal.
Question 3(b)
Why are traditional raw materials
being replaced by petrochemical products?
or
Why are petrochemical products
growing in popularity?
Answer
Petrochemicals are cost
effective, economically stable, cheaper as they are produced on a mass scale.
Its raw material is easily available, not dependent on agricultural raw
material as in the case of jute. Therefore, raw materials like wood, glass and
metals are being replaced by petrochemical products.
Question 3(c)
(i) Name any two products made
from petrochemicals.
(ii) Why is a petrochemical
industry usually located near an oil refinery?
Answer
(i) Two products made from
petrochemicals are-
- Plastic sheets
- Resins and adhesives for
industries
(ii) A petrochemical industry is
usually located near an oil refinery which can supply its basic requirements of
Naphtha or Ethylene and Benzene.
Question 3(d)
The electronic industry has made
an impact on both media and education. Give reasons to support your answer.
Answer
Electronic industry, with mass
scale integration process, has produced computers, servers, displays,
televisions and cameras, telephones etc. These devices help to capture and
broadcast news, advertisements, cinema, educational programs etc., to a large
section of the population over the country and overseas, thus changing the life
style of the Indian masses.
Various new technologies like
smart boards, projectors, video clips, pictures etc., are used to make learning
easy and fun for the students. Further, in this Corona crisis, online classes
provided to the students by the use of various online applications have helped
the students to continue their education from home.
Thus, the electronic industry has
made an impact on both media and education.
Question 4(a)
Name two industrial towns which
are connected with the production of iron and steel.
Answer
Two industrial towns which are
connected with the production of iron and steel are-
- Visakhapatnam
- Jamshedpur
Question 4(b)
Mini steel plants cause less
pollution than integrated steel plants. Give reasons.
Answer
Mini steel plants cause less
pollution than integrated steel plants because mini steel plants use electric
furnaces while the integrated steel plants use coal to melt iron ore.
Question 4(c)
State the difficulties
experienced by the iron and steel industry in India.
Answer
The difficulties experienced by
the iron and steel industry in India are-
- Capital intensive — Huge amount of
capital is required by the iron and steel industry and the plants have a
long gestation period.
- Obsolete technology — The machinery being
used in the iron and steel plants is outdated.
- Limited availability of
Coking coal —
The coal reserves of India are limited. Many steel plants import coking
coal.
- Sick industrial units — Due to inadequate
supply of power and sharp increase in the cost of raw material, many steel
plants are experiencing sickness or have been closed down.
- Control of Prices — The government has
fixed the price for iron and steel which leaves little margin of profit
for the manufacturers.
- Inefficiently managed public
sector —
Many public sector plants are facing strikes, lockouts, energy crisis
caused by heavy investment on social overheads, poor labour relations,
inefficient management and underutilisation of capacity.
- Heavy demand — To meet the
increasing demand, large quantity of iron and steel has to be imported.
Question 4(d)
Give three reasons why the iron
and steel industry is concentrated largely in the Chota Nagpur belt.
Answer
The iron and steel industry is
concentrated largely in the Chota Nagpur belt because of the following reasons-
- Iron and steel industry
requires iron ore, coal, limestone and manganese which are available in
close proximity.
- Cheap labour is available to
the industries from the states of West Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha
and Chhattisgarh.
- Good network of roads and
railway facilitates the movement of raw materials to iron and steel
plants.
Chapter 20
Transport
Class 10 - Total Geography Morning
Star
Answer the following questions
Question 1(a)
Name
the types of roads used in India. Which agency is responsible for maintenance
of each category separately?
Answer
The
types of roads used in India are as follows-
|
Roads |
Agency responsible for maintenance |
|
National Highways |
National Highways Authority of India |
|
Expressways |
National Highways Authority of India |
|
State Highways |
Public Works Department of state/union territory |
|
District roads |
Zilla Parishad |
|
Rural roads |
Gram Panchayats and National Rural Infrastructure Development Agency |
|
Border roads |
Border Road Organisation |
Question 1(b)
Name
the two major projects developed by NHAI.
Answer
Two
major projects developed by NHAI are-
- Golden Quadrilateral
- North-South and East-West Corridors
Question 1(c)
Transport
is the backbone of a country's economy. Give reasons to support your answer.
Answer
Transport
is the backbone of a country's economy because of the following reasons-
- Transportation helps in the better utilisation of the resources of
the backward areas by linking them with the more advanced areas.
- It aids in the process of industrialisation and urbanisation.
- It removes scarcity of goods during any crisis.
- It helps in minimising the effects of natural disasters.
- It brings in homogeneity and National integration in thought and
culture through easy movement of people and bringing them in contact with
each other.
Question 1(d)
Why is
road transport in India considered more useful than rail transport? Give
reasons to support your answer.
Answer
Road
transport in India is considered more useful than rail transport because of the
following reasons-
- Roads make every village and hamlet reachable.
- Construction cost of roads is much lower than that of the railway
line.
- Roads can be constructed even in the areas of difficult terrain and
where railway lines do not exist.
- Roads offer door to door service and thereby, reduce the cost of
loading and unloading.
- The movement of goods is safer through road transport as the
chances of pilferage are lesser than in the railways.
- Road transport provides link between railway stations and ports and
their hinterlands.
Question 2(a)
What
is an expressway? Name one expressway.
Answer
Expressways
are highways planned for high-speed traffic, having few intersection, limited
points of access or exit and a divider between lanes for traffic moving in
opposite directions.
They
usually have six to eight lanes. There is a controlled access where a vehicle
can enter through a limited number of places and no further.
Question 2(b)
Give
two points of difference between highways and expressways.
Answer
|
Highways |
Expressways |
|
In case of highways, multiple roads are there which merge with or
cross the highways at many places. |
In expressway, roads are not multiples. There is a controlled access
where a vehicle can enter through a limited place and no further. |
|
Highways may or may not have expressway type facilities like access
ramps, lane dividers, telephone booths, CCTV cameras and mobile radars. |
Expressways have several facilities like access ramps, lane dividers,
telephone booths, CCTV cameras and mobile radars. |
Question 2(c)
Give
two advantages and one disadvantage of railways.
Answer
Two
advantages of railways are-
- Railways transport raw materials to the production units and
finished goods to the markets.
- Railways help in reducing sufferings during natural calamities.
One
disadvantage of railways is that rail transport lacks flexibility of routes.
Train tracks cannot be laid in every region of the country like in the hilly
areas and the remote forested areas.
Question 2(d)
Mention
any three problems being faced by the Indian Railways.
Answer
Three
problems being faced by the Indian Railways are-
- Indian Railways have to play a double role of revenue earning as
well as fulfilling the social obligations. This is because the Railways
are seen as a commercial organisation on one hand and it is treated as a
social organisation on the other hand.
- Railway lines are difficult to construct in the hilly and mountainous
parts of India.
- Obsolete trains, tracks and equipment make railway unsafe.
Question 3(a)
What
are National Highways?
Answer
The
main roads which are constructed and maintained by the Central Government are
known as National Highways. These are main highways running through the length
and breadth of the country and are the backbone of road infrastructure.
National
Highways in India are designated as NH followed by the State highway numbers.
Question 3(b)
What
is the Golden Quadrilateral Project?
Answer
The
Golden Quadrilateral is the largest express highway project in India. It
connects India's four largest metropolies: Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai
and thus, forms a quadrilateral of sorts. Bengaluru, Pune, Ahmedabad and Surat
are also served by this network.
Question 3(c)
Give
three economic benefits of the Golden Quadrilateral Project.
Answer
Three
economic benefits of the Golden Quadrilateral Project are-
- This highway interconnects many major cities and ports. It provides
an impetus to truck transport throughout India.
- It enables the industrial growth of all small towns through which
it passes.
- It provides vast opportunities for transport of agricultural
produce from hinterland to major cities and ports for export.
Question 3(d)
Give
three points to explain the role of roads in the economic development of the
country.
Answer
The
role of roads in the economic development of the country can be understood from
the following points-
- Roads offer door to door service and thereby, reduce the cost of
loading and unloading. Roads also help farmers to move their perishable
products quickly to the markets.
- National highways and expressways link various important cities and
reduce the time of travel and distance between mega cities.
- Construction cost of roads is much lower than that of the railway
lines and roads connect the fields of raw material to industries and
markets.
Question 4(a)
What
is the significance of an efficient transport system?
Answer
The
significance of an efficient transport system is as follows-
- Transportation helps in the better utilisation of the resources of
the backward areas by linking them with the more advanced areas.
- It aids in the process of industrialisation and urbanisation.
- It removes scarcity of goods during any crisis.
- It helps in minimising the effects of natural disasters.
- It brings in homogeneity and National integration in thought and
culture through easy movement of people and bringing them in contact with
one another.
Question 4(b)
Name
the types of gauges of railways used in India.
Answer
The
types of gauges of railways used in India are-
- Broad gauge
- Metre gauge
- Narrow gauge
Question 4(c)
How is
the Indian rail network one of the largest and busiest networks in the world?
Answer
The
Indian rail network is one of the largest and busiest networks in the world,
transporting over 18 million passengers and more than 2 million tonnes of
freight daily. It is the world's largest employer, with more than 1.4 million
employees. The railways traverse the length and breadth of the country,
covering 7,137 stations over a total route length of more than 66,030
kilometres.
Question 4(d)
Give a
geographical reason for each of the following:
(i)
Railways bind the economic and cultural life of the country.
(ii)
Railways are not common in North-East India.
(iii)
North India is better suited for railways and roadways.
Answer
(i)
Railways constitute the principal mode of transportation for freight and
passengers. It binds the economic life of the country as Indian railways carry
a huge variety of goods ranging from mineral ores, fertilizers,
petro-chemicals, agricultural produce, iron and steel. Ports and major urban
areas have their own freight lines. Thus, railways help in accelerating the
development of industry and agriculture, consequently improving the economic
conditions in the country.
Further,
the railways bind the cultural life of the country as it brings people together
from the farthest corners of the country for conducting business, sightseeing,
pilgrimage, education etc.
(ii)
The north-eastern part of the country is marked with the presence of big
rivers, dissected relief, dense forests, frequent floods, landslides and
international frontiers, etc. Since it is difficult to lay railway lines in
hilly terrains or remote forested areas, railways are not common in North-East
India.
(iii)
North India is better suited for railways and roadways because north India has
level land with a gradual slope due to the presence of northern plains and it
is easier to build roads and lay railway tracks when the land is level and
devoid of hilly terrain or remote forested areas.
Question 5(a)
Name
the regulatory body looking after air transport in India. State any two of its
functions.
Answer
The
Airports Authority of India is looking after air transport in India.
Two of
its functions are-
- It provides aeronautical communication services in the country.
- It is responsible for creating, upgrading, maintaining and managing
civil aviation infrastructure.
Question 5(b)
Discuss
the contribution of Air India in the air transport of India.
Answer
Air
India provides international service for both passengers and cargo. It is the
16th largest airline in Asia, serving 50 domestic destinations and 39
international routes and serving over 100 cities.
Question 5(c)
List
two advantages and one disadvantage of air transport in India.
Answer
Two
advantages of air transport in India are-
- It is the fastest and comfortable mode of transport. It connects
the far flung and remote areas of the country.
- The speed and ease with which aeroplanes can cross mountain
barriers, sandy deserts, large expanses of water or forests make the air
transport indispensible.
One
disadvantage of air transport in India is that it is costly.
Question 5(d)
Give
two advantages and one disadvantage of helicopter services over aeroplane
services.
Answer
Two
advantages of helicopter services over aeroplane services are-
- Helicopters can hover, land and take off in a vertical position due
to its small size. Aeroplanes cannot do that.
- Helicopter service provides site-seeing for the tourists and offer
a wide variety of services including flying ambulances to hold patients,
assistance in loading water to fight giant fires.
One
disadvantage of helicopter services over aeroplane services is that the noise
and vibration might cause nausea, pain and motor dysfunction in the passengers.
The comfort level is less as compared to an aeroplane.
Question 6(a)
Explain
why India has an extensive network of waterways.
Answer
India
has an extensive network of water ways because it has a long indented
coastline. India also have a good network of inland waterways as it has
numerous rivers, canals, backwaters and creeks. The river Ganga and Brahmaputra
are perennial rivers and hence are also used for inland navigation.
Question 6(b)
Explain
the role of oceanic waterways in the transport sector of India's economy.
Answer
Oceanic
waterways constitute an important role in the transport sector of India's
economy as ocean routes handle 95% of India's foreign trade by volume and about
70% by value. Besides international trade, these routes are also used for
transportation between the islands and the rest of the country.
Question 6(c)
Give
two advantages and one disadvantage of water transport.
Answer
Two
advantages of water transport are-
- Inland water transport mode is environment friendly and cost
effective mode of transport.
- It is most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky material.
One
disadvantage of water transport is that it depends on weather conditions.
Question 6(d)
Give a
geographical reason for each of the following:
(i)
The Ganga is navigable from its mouth right upto Allahabad.
(ii)
The Peninsular rivers are not ideal for inland water transport.
(iii)
Mumbai is a harbour and a port.
Answer
(i)
The Ganga is navigable from its mouth right upto Allahabad because of the
following reasons-
- Ganga is a perennial river fed by monsoon rains in the rainy season
and melting of snow on the lofty mountains during dry season.
- It is joined by Yamuna, Son, Ramaganga, Gomti, Ghagra, Gandak and
Kosi which increase the depth of water in Ganga, which is more than 10
metres up to Allahabad.
- The slope of the Ganga is gradual and the river bed is free from
stones and silt.
(ii)
The Peninsular rivers are not ideal for inland water transport because of the
following reasons-
- These rivers are seasonal as they are rain-fed.
- These rivers are comparatively shorter than the rivers of northern
India.
- These rivers are marked by a number of waterfalls.
(iii)
When natural harbours have all the facilities of ports they serve as ports.
Mumbai is a harbour as it is surrounded by land on most sides but has an
entrance point to the Arabian sea. It is also a port as it has facilities for
loading and unloading of cargo ships as well as buildings and warehouses for
storing goods and well built transport system.
Question 7(a)
What
are the two prerequisites of waterways to be navigable?
Answer
The
two prerequisites of waterways to be navigable are-
- Regular flow of water
- Appropriate depth in which the craft can sail easily.
Question 7(b)
Give
two points of difference between Inland Waterways and Oceanic Waterways.
Answer
|
Inland
waterways |
Oceanic waterways |
|
Inland waterways include rivers, canals, backwaters and creeks which
are deep enough to allow the ships and boats to navigate safely. |
Oceanic waterways include transport along the coast line. |
|
Domestic trade takes place through inland waterways. |
Coastal and foreign trade usually takes place through oceanic
waterways. |
Question 7(c)
(i)
Give two points of difference between a Port and a Harbour.
(ii)
On which river and between which two places does the National Waterway No.2
lie?
Answer
(i)
Two points of difference between a port and a harbour are-
|
Port |
Harbour |
|
Ports are man-made commercial places built along the coastline. |
Harbours are natural or created places, connecting a piece of land
with a large waterbody, which serves as ports. |
|
The main purpose of ports is loading and unloading of cargo ships. |
Harbours are utilised mainly for providing safe parking or anchorage
to ships. |
(ii)
National Waterway No. 2 lies on Brahmaputra river and connects the North-East
region with Kolkata and Haldia ports through Bangladesh and Sunderbans
waterways.
Question 7(d)
Give a
geographical reason for each of the following:
(i)
Nearly 70 percent of Indians do not use air transport.
(ii) A
well-developed transport network is important for industrial progress.
(iii)
Airways are quite useful during natural calamity.
Answer
(i)
Nearly 70 percent of Indians do not use air transport because air transport is
very costly as compared to roadways and railways, depends on weather conditions
and it has high freight rates.
(ii) A
well-developed transport network is important for industrial progress because
it helps in connecting one part of the country with the other. It facilitates
movement of raw material, fuel, machinery etc., to the points of production and
finished goods to the points of marking and consumption. Thus, a well developed
transport network is essential for industrialisation and urbanisation.
(iii)
Airways are quite useful during natural calamity because it can be used to
air-lift people from the affected areas and to air-drop food, medicines and
other necessary things to calamity affected people.
Chapter 21
Waste Management — I Impact of Waste Accumulation
Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star
Answer
the following questions
Question 1(a)
What is waste? Name two sources
of waste.
Answer
The term 'waste' refers to any
material that is discarded because it has served its purpose and is no longer
useful.
Two sources of waste are-
- Domestic waste like food
leftovers, bits of paper etc.
- Industrial waste like
paints, sand, fly ash etc.
Question 1(b)
How is the 'use and throw'
concept responsible for the increase in waste generation?
Answer
The 'use and throw' concept means
to use any product only once and then dispose it.
For example, suppose we purchase
a pen. After the ink is finished, we throw it away and buy a new pen instead of
buying a refill and reusing the pen. If this example is followed by many
people, the amount of waste will definitely increase in volume.
Thus, the 'use and throw' concept
is responsible for the increase in waste generation.
Question 1(c)
What is acid rain? State its
impact on the environment.
Answer
Acid rain means the presence of
excessive acids in rainwater.
Burning of coal, wood and
petroleum produce sulphur and nitrogen. These two react with oxygen and are
converted into their respective oxides- sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide,
which are soluble in water.
During rain, these oxides react
with large quantities of water vapour in the atmosphere to form acids like
sulphuric acid, sulphurous acid, nitric acid and nitrous acid. These acids,
when they precipitate together with rain or snow form acid rain.
Impact of acid rain on the
environment are as follows-
- Acid rain increases the
acidity in the soil and destroys forests and crops.
- It corrodes buildings,
monuments, statues, bridges, fences and railings.
- It poses a serious threat to
human health, since it contaminates air and water.
- Aquatic species are affected
due to acid rain.
- Acid rain affects plant
growth. Plant leaves get burnt and dry.
Question 1(d)
What is meant by Ozone layer
depletion? How is it harmful?
Answer
Ozone layer depletion is the thinning
of the ozone layer present in the upper atmosphere. This happens when the
chlorine and bromine atoms in the atmosphere come in contact with ozone and
destroy the ozone molecules.
It is harmful because the ozone
layer absorbs ultraviolet rays of the sun. But depletion of ozone layer allows
the ultraviolet rays of the sun to reach the Earth directly without any
obstacle or filtration.
Ultraviolet rays can harm the
environment in the following ways-
- They cause many diseases
like skin cancer and cataract.
- They can cause genetic
disorders which ultimately affect heredity.
- They disturb the ecological
balance in marine ecosystem.
- They can damage physical and
chemical properties of any complex chemical substance.
Question 2(a)
What is E-waste? Why is it
increasing at a fast rate?
Answer
E-waste or electronic waste
refers to various forms of electric and electronic equipment that have ceased
to be of any value to its users because they have exhausted their utility value
due to redundancy, replacement or breakage.
With advancement in Information
Technology, new electronic goods are being produced at a fast rate and this
results in an increase in volume of obsolete electronic products. In fact,
e-waste is one of the fastest growing waste, constituting more than 5% of all
municipal solid waste.
Question 2(b)
Explain briefly how does the
industrial waste reach the human beings and affect their health.
Answer
Industries dealing with
chemicals, pulp and paper, food processing, etc. produce various kinds of waste
material. The smoke coming out from the factories has small particles of dust,
carbon, metals, other solids, liquids and radioactive materials which get mixed
in smoke and pollute the air.
The burning of sulphur in coal or
heavy oil in thermal power plants releases sulphur dioxide in the air. Sulphur
dioxide combines with oxygen and water to form sulphuric acid in the atmosphere
which is a health hazard. Besides, it produces acid rain.
In winter, smog, a combination of
smoke and fog envelopes many cities creating health hazards and traffic
problems. Smog is harmful for health as it causes asthma, bronchitis, shortness
of breath, eye and nose irritation, etc. It also reduces visibility and leads
to problems in traffic movement.
Industrial waste like heavy
metals or synthetic organic compounds reach water bodies either through direct
discharge or by leaching from waste dumps. Among the heavy metals, cadmium,
lead, mercury, copper, chromium etc., get into water.
The industrial waste mixed with
water makes it poisonous and unhygienic. It may also cause various diseases in
humans and animals, if consumed without treatment.
Question 2(c)
Name two toxic particulate
materials. State the effect of each on human health.
Answer
- Lead — It affects blood
system, causes behavioural disorders and can also cause death.
- Nickel — It causes
respiratory problems and lung cancer.
Question 2(d)
Give two differences between
toxic and non-toxic waste.
Answer
|
Toxic
waste |
Non-toxic waste |
|
Toxic waste is non-biodegradable. |
Non-toxic waste is biodegradable. |
|
It poses a serious threat to human health and the environment. |
It does not pose a serious threat to human health and the environment. |
|
For example, lead, cadmium, mercury etc. |
For example, food leftover, fruit and vegetable peelings, bits of
paper etc. |
Question 3(a)
Explain how eutrophication
affects aquatic life.
Answer
Eutrophication is the process of
depletion of oxygen from water bodies occurring either naturally or due to
human activities.
Under normal conditions, algae
and phytoplankton use carbon dioxide, inorganic nitrogen and phosphate from the
water as food. They serve as food for the zooplankton, which in turn are eaten
by fish.
When nutrients become abundant
due to waste accumulation, the growth of phytoplankton and algae increases.
They reduce the penetration of oxygen, light and heat into the water body. As a
result, the aquatic plants are unable to carry out photosynthesis reducing the
content of oxygen in the water. This causes death of most of the aquatic
organisms, draining water of all its oxygen.
Question 3(b)
What harm is done by dumping of
waste near water bodies?
Answer
Waste dumped near a water source
percolates through the soil into the water bodies and contaminates the water.
This results in the accumulation of toxic substances in the water bodies and
further in the food chain through plants and animals that feed on it.
The contaminated water may cause
various water borne diseases like typhoid, cholera etc., if the water is
consumed without treatment.
Question 3(c)
What is biomagnification? What
can be its effects on humans?
Answer
Biomagnification refers to the
increase in the concentration of various toxic substances along the food chain.
Toxic substances at the level of
primary producers get concentrated at each trophic level as they move up the
food chain. The phenomenon of concentrated toxic deposition at the higher
trophic level is known as bio-accumulation.
For example, if there are traces
of toxic chemicals in water, then their concentration in algae will be much
higher. When fish eat the algae, the concentration of toxins will increase
further. Therefore, accumulation of a small amount of toxic chemicals in water
can have a serious impact on the fish that live in it. Further, when the fish
are consumed by humans and other animals, these toxins can cause various kinds
of diseases in them.
Question 3(d)
Give a reason for each of the
following:
(i) Marine animals and turtles
are found dead in many coastal areas.
(ii) Radioactive waste is more
harmful than other waste.
(iii) Uncontrolled burning of
waste causes air pollution.
Answer
(i) Marine animals and turtles
are found dead in many coastal areas due to plastic debris in the ocean. More
than 80% of this plastic comes from land. It washes out from the beaches and
streets. It travels through storm drains into streams and rivers. It flies away
from landfills into seas. In the ocean, this plastic waste breaks down into
smaller pieces, which are easily ingested by marine animals causing blockages
in their digestive tracts and eventual death. Marine turtles are more
susceptible to the effects of consuming marine debris because they have
downward facing spines which prevent the possibility of regurgitation.
(ii) Radioactive waste is more
harmful than other waste because radioactive wastes cause pollution and damage
the environment and the high level products of nuclear wastes remain in the
environment for several hundred years.
(iii) Uncontrolled burning of
waste creates smoke and other air pollutants that release toxic substances into
the environment and cause air pollution.
Question 4(a)
Name two diseases which occur
because of waste accumulation on land.
Answer
Two diseases which occur because
of waste accumulation on land are-
- Malaria
- Dengue
Question 4(b)
Name two common diseases caused
as a result of gaseous pollution.
Answer
Two common diseases caused as a
result of gaseous pollution are-
- Bronchitis
- Lung cancer
Question 4(c)
Name three water-borne diseases.
Answer
Three water-borne diseases are-
- Diarrhoea
- Cholera
- Typhoid
Question 4(d)
Explain briefly the need for
management of waste.
Answer
The problem with waste is that it
remains in our environment. We move waste from one place to another but never
get rid of it completely. Nature has recycled waste materials for millions of
years. However, human population has increased so rapidly during the last
century that the environment is now threatened by our activities and the wastes
they produce. Much damage is done to the environment by the pollution of air,
degradation of soils and contamination of water sources like rivers, lakes etc.
There is a close connection
between the waste, pollution and the damage to the environment. Waste causes
pollution, which in turn causes the damage. The dangers posed by global
pollution due to accumulation of wastes, threaten the survival of the ecosystem
and call for the need to manage waste.
Question 5(a)
Why is the handling of solid
wastes a major problem?
Answer
The handling of solid waste is a
problem because most disposal methods cause harm to the environment. Both open
dumps and landfills may contain toxins that seep into the soil and the water
bodies and cause soil and water pollution respectively.
The uncontrolled burning of waste
creates smoke and other air pollutants that release toxic substances into the
environment and cause air pollution. Scavengers and stray animals invade the
open garbage dumps and spread the waste over a large area, thereby, spreading
germs and diseases as well as destroying the beauty of the place.
Question 5(b)
Name the gas produced by the
decomposition of accumulated waste. Why is this gas harmful?
Answer
Methane gas is gas produced by
the decomposition of accumulated waste.
This gas is highly inflammable,
and can cause an explosion if not managed properly.
Question 5(c)
What is Global Warming? Name any
two Greenhouse Gases?
Answer
The rise in average mean
temperature of the earth on account of enhanced concentration of greenhouse
gases in the atmosphere is known as global warming.
Two Greenhouse gases are-
- Carbon dioxide
- Methane
Question 5(d)
Give a reason for each of the
following:
(i) 'Use and throw' concept
generates more waste.
(ii) Run off from fields leads to
death in adjacent water bodies.
(iii) Birds feeding on
agricultural waste are at the brink of extinction.
Answer
(i) 'Use and throw' concept
generates more waste because this concepts means to use any product only once
and then dispose it. Therefore, after using a product only once, it is neither
re-used nor recycled, but disposed once and for all. And since people are using
this concept in modern times, the generation of waste is increasing to new
levels.
(ii) Run off from fields leads to
death in adjacent water bodies because the fertilisers and pesticides used in
the fields have chemicals. When they reach the water bodies, the toxins present
in the waste can kill aquatic organisms directly by sufficiently changing the
pH of water, covering the water surface and causing a reduction in dissolved
oxygen. The aquatic organisms may also become victims of bio-magnification and
bio-accumulation.
(iii) Birds feeding on
agricultural waste are at the brink of extinction because feeding on
agricultural waste affects them adversely. Such birds have thinner and weaker
egg shells and increased mortality.
hapter 22
Waste Management — II Safe
Disposal of Waste
Class 10 - Total Geography Morning
Star
Answer the following questions
Question 1(a)
What
do you mean by segregation of waste? How does it ensure safe waste disposal?
Answer
Segregation
of waste means dividing the waste into different categories like dry and wet or
biodegradable and non-biodegradable.
When
waste is segregated, there occurs a reduction in the volume of waste that
reaches the landfills. Air and water pollution is considerably reduced and it
becomes easier to apply different processes of waste disposal like composting,
recycling and incineration.
Question 1(b)
What
is meant by open dumping of waste? Why is open dumping not considered as an
environment friendly method?
Answer
In
open dumping, waste materials are dumped in open low lands far away from the
city.
This
method is not environment friendly as the open pits spoil the sight of the area
and become a breeding ground for mosquitoes, flies, insects, etc., that are the
carriers of harmful diseases. They give out foul odour. The burning of waste
material in the open dumps pollutes the air.
Another
danger of open dumping is that rainwater could carry the harmful substances to
the nearby streams, ponds or lakes and if the water seeps down it could pollute
the groundwater.
Question 1(c)
(i)
What is a sanitary landfill?
(ii)
How is waste disposed of in a sanitary landfill?
Answer
(i)
Sanitary landfill is a way of disposing refuse on land without creating
nuisances or hazards to public health and safety. The waste disposal is carried
out with minimal environmental damage and in areas already spoiled or in need
of restoration.
(ii)
In sanitary landfill, the waste undergoes the following five phases for safe
disposal-
- In the first phase of operation, aerobic bacteria depletes the
available oxygen and causes the temperature to rise.
- In the second phase, anaerobic conditions get established and lead
to the evolution of hydrogen and carbon dioxide.
- Phase three establishes population of bacteria and the beginning of
methanogenic activity, i.e., production of methane from the decomposition
of organic matter.
- In the fourth phase, the methanogenic activity becomes stabilised.
- The fifth phase depletes the organic matter, and the system returns
to aerobic state.
Question 1(d)
Give a
reason for each of the following:
(i)
Vehicles used for transporting waste should be covered.
(ii)
Waste segregation is key to waste management.
(iii)
Roads from plastic waste are environment friendly.
Answer
(i)
Vehicles used for transporting waste should be covered as this prevents the
wastes from being scattered. Waste should not be visible to public, nor exposed
to open environment.
(ii)
Waste segregation is key to waste management as when waste is segregated, there
occurs a reduction in the volume of waste that reaches the landfills. Air and
water pollution is considerable reduced and it becomes easier to apply
different processes of waste disposal like composting, recycling and
incineration.
(iii)
Roads from plastic waste are environment friendly because of the following
reasons-
- It overcomes the growing problem of plastic waste disposal in the
country. Since a large amount of plastic waste is required for a small
stretch of road, the amount of waste plastic strewn around gets
tremendously reduced.
- This road construction process is eco-friendly with no toxic gases
being released.
Question 2(a)
What
is biodegradable waste? Name two useful products which can be made from
biodegradable domestic waste.
Answer
Waste
which is organic in nature and can be decomposed or broken down by living
organisms is called biodegradable waste. For example- stale food, rotten fruits
and vegetables etc.
Two
useful products which can be made from biodegradable domestic waste are compost
and biogas.
Question 2(b)
What
service is indirectly done by the rag-pickers for the disposal of waste?
Answer
The
poor rag pickers make a living by sorting out reusable and recyclable items
from discarded solids. They do a good job by removing much of the waste from
the garbage dumps. Pieces of metal, glass, rubber, plastics etc., are removed
to be recycled to get finished products. Thus, they segregate the waste and
make waste disposal easier.
Question 2(c)
State
three steps that should be taken by the municipal authorities for the safe
disposal of solid waste.
Answer
The
following three steps should be taken by the municipal authorities for the safe
disposal of solid waste-
- Organising house to house collection of municipal solid wastes.
- Biomedical waste and industrial waste should not be mixed with
municipal solid waste. The waste should be segregated into biodegradable
and non-biodegradable.
- Stray animals should not be allowed to move around waste disposal
facilities.
Question 2(d)
What
is composting? Give two advantages of using compost.
Answer
Composting
of waste in an aerobic method of decomposing solid wastes. The organic wastes
from households are made to undergo decomposition in such a way that bacteria
and other micro-organisms break them down and produce a safe, clean and soil
like material called compost.
Two
advantages of using compost are-
- It enhances soil nutrients and water retention capacity of soil.
- It suppresses plant diseases.
Question 3(a)
What
are the three R's of waste management?
Answer
The
three R's of waste management are-
- Reducing the waste
- Reusing the waste
- Recycling the waste
Question 3(b)
Explain
how reusing waste can reduce the burden of waste disposal.
Answer
One
way to prevent waste generation, improve our communities, and increase the
material well-being of our citizens is to take useful products discarded by
those who no longer want or need them and provide them to those who do.
Reusing
an item means that it continues to be a valuable, useful, productive item, and
replaces new items that would utilize more water, energy, timber, petroleum,
and other limited natural resources in their manufacture. For example, instead
of discarding old or torn shoes, they can be given to under-privileged or poor
people for use.
Hence,
if we reuse products, we ultimately avoid the generation of waste and reduce
the burden of waste disposal.
Question 3(c)
What
is meant by recycling of waste effectively? Give one example.
Answer
Recycling
is a process by which wastes are converted into reusable products, thereby
reducing the usage of raw material and energy and controlling air, water and
soil pollution.
Recycling
of waste effectively means to recycle an item till it cannot be recycled
further and cannot be utilised any more.
For
example, in India, we have tonnes of bagasse from sugarcane during a particular
season. Bagasse is used in the manufacture of paper pulp and this helps to save
trees which are normally used for making paper pulp.
Question 3(d)
Give a
reason for each of the following:
(i)
Recycling of waste to produce paper can reduce deforestation.
(ii)
Sugarcane waste can be recycled into useful products.
(iii)
We should avoid using polythene carry bags.
Answer
(i)
Recycling of waste to produce paper can reduce deforestation as in India, we
have tonnes of bagasse from sugarcane during a particular season. Bagasse is
used in the manufacture of paper pulp and this helps to save trees which are
normally used for making paper pulp.
(ii)
Bagasse is a waste product from the sugar industry. In India, we have tonnes of
bagasse from sugarcane during a particular season. Bagasse is used in the
manufacture of paper pulp and this helps to save trees which are normally used
for making paper pulp. Bagasse is also used for making packaging material for
dairy products. Hence, sugarcane waste can be recycled into useful products.
(iii)
We should avoid using polythene carry bags because plastic is
non-biodegradable. Plastic has to be incinerated, recycled or buried in
landfills. The polythene carry bags are made from recycled plastic. They are
harmful because the melting of plastic and plastic products breaks some polymer
chains into smaller units which are harmful.
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