ICSE GEOGRAPHY NOTES CHAPTER WISE

 

Chapter 1

Interpretation of Topographical Maps

Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star


Short Answer questions

Question 1

What is a 'map'?

Answer

A map is defined as a representation of the earth's surface or a part of it, showing natural or man-made features, drawn to scale on a flat surface.

Question 2

State the essential features of a map.

Answer

The essential features of a map are:

  1. Title
  2. Scale
  3. Direction
  4. Grid System
  5. Conventional Signs
  6. Key or Legend

Question 3

What do you mean by the 'key' of a map?

Answer

Key of a map explains the meaning of the symbols that are used in the map. It is also known as legend.

Question 4

Into how many categories have the maps been classified?

Answer

On the basis of size, maps can be classified into two categories:

  1. Large scale maps (Cadastral maps and Topographical maps)
  2. Small scale maps (Atlas maps and Wall maps)

On the basis of content and purpose, maps can be classified into three types-

  1. Physical maps
  2. Political maps
  3. Thematic maps

Question 5

What are the topographical maps?

Answer

A topographical map shows the surface of the earth in detail. These maps are drawn on a number of sheets where each sheet depicts the details of only one particular part of the whole area. these sheets are joined to give a complete picture of the entire area.

Topographical maps show physical features like valleys, hills, peaks etc., as well as man-made features like roads, railways, canals etc.

Question 6

What is the National Grid Reference (NGR)?

Answer

Grid lines are imaginary lines drawn on a survey map in red colour. The origin of the Grid is a point south-west of the map. The 'National Grid Reference' is used for indicating the correct position of a particular feature on the map.

Structured Questions

Question 1

Give the four-figure grid reference of the following from the given map extract:

Give four-figure grid reference. Chapter 1 Interpretation of Topographical Maps, Total Geography ICSE Class 10

  1. Two settlements having a Post office.
  2. Two settlements having a dispensary.
  3. The settlement having a Siphon.
  4. The settlement having the confluence of the main river and Dior Nadi.
  5. The settlement with the words Brackish.

Answer

  1. 6131, 6233
  2. 6234, 6032
  3. 6231
  4. 5930
  5. 6232

Question 2

Give the six-figure grid reference of the following from the given map extract:

  1. Police Station.
  2. 4r.
  3. Post office at Malgaon.
  4. Surveyed tree at Posintra.

Answer

  1. 625338
  2. 609310
  3. 615312
  4. 600320

Chapter 2

Contours

Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star


Give the terms used in contours for each of the following

Question 1

A number preceded by a dot.

Answer

Spot height

Question 2

The numerical difference between two contour lines.

Answer

Vertical interval

Question 3

A number preceded by a triangle.

Answer

Triangulation point

Question 4

The difference between maximum and minimum height in areas of steep slope.

Answer

Relative height

Question 5

The accurate height of some point marked above the ground.

Answer

Spot height

Describe the following terms

Question 1

Contour Interval

Answer

Contour interval means the difference of height between two consecutive contours. For example, if one thick contour shows the height 300 metres and the next thin contour depicts the height of 320 metres. Then, the contour interval is 20 metres.

Question 2

Vertical Interval

Answer

The vertical distance between any two contour lines is called vertical interval.

Question 3

Horizontal Equivalent

Answer

The actual distance between two points on two contour lines is called horizontal equivalent.

Question 4

Gradient

Answer

The ratio between the vertical height and the horizontal distance of a slope of land measured along the ground is called gradient.

Explain how would you distinguish between the following on the basis of contours

Question 1

Gentle Slope and Steep Slope

Answer

Gentle Slope

Steep Slope

In gentle slopes, the change of elevation is gradual. Normally about 1:25 gradient of elevation is gradual.

Steep slope suddenly slopes up or down.

The contours are placed wide apart in gentle slope.

For steep slopes, the contours are drawn close to one another.

Question 2

Scarp and Dip

Answer

Scarp

Dip

A scarp has a narrow top with a steep slope.

A dip has a narrow top with a gentle slope.

The contour lines are closer to each other.

The contour lines are spread far apart.

It has a gradient of 1:3.

It has a gradient of about 1:12.

Question 3

Ridge and Water Divide

Answer

Ridge

Water Divide

It is a long and narrow highland sloping steeply downwards on its sides.

A line which separates two adjacent drainage basins is known as water divide.

Contours showing a ridge are elongated and are closely spaced.

The side on which the ridge is steeper, the contours are drawn closely together, whereas the side on which the ridge is gentle, the contours are drawn far apart.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1

What is a 'contour'?

Answer

Contour lines are imaginary lines which are drawn on a map to join places having the same height above the mean sea level.

Question 2

Give two points of difference between Bench Mark and Spot Height.

Answer

Bench Mark

Spot Height

These are marks etched on stone or a building to indicate the accurate height determined by surveys.

It refers to the height of a point on the ground above the mean sea level.

It is written as "BM" followed by a number.

It is represented by a dot followed by a number on the map.

Question 3

What do you understand by V.I. and H.E.?

Answer

V.I. stands for vertical interval. It is the vertical distance between any two contour lines.

H.E. stands for horizontal equivalent. It is the actual distance between two points on two contour lines.

Question 4

What advantages do contours have over hill-shading and hachuring?

Answer

Hill shading and hachuring only give an impression of the slope but do not indicate the heights of the land above sea level, whereas the contours show both impression of the slope as well as the heights of the land above the sea level.

Question 5

Why two contours never intersect each other?

Answer

Two contours never intersect each other because each line represents a separate elevation, and we can't have two different elevations at the same point.

Structured Questions

Question 1

What is meant by relief?

Answer

Relief refers to actual configuration of land which includes its altitude and slope. The relief features found on the earth's surface include mountains, valleys, hills, plains and plateaus.

Question 2

State the three methods used to show the earth's relief features.

Answer

The three methods used to show the earth's relief features are-

  1. hachures
  2. hill shading
  3. contours

Question 3

What do the contour lines represent?

Answer

Contour lines are imaginary lines joining places which have the same height above mean sea level.

Question 4

How do contour lines show different slopes of land?

Answer

The contour lines are shown by brown colour as thick brown lines and thin brown lines. Contour lines show:

1. Elevation of land: The height of a contour is indicated by figures inserted in a break in the line.

2. Steepness of its slope: When the contours are very close, they represent steep slopes. When they are farther apart, they represent gradually increasing slopes. Absence of contour lines indicate that the land is flat i.e., a low land.

3. Shape of land at various heights: The contour lines indicate the shape of land. For example, almost circular contours whose value decreases inside represent a lake.

Chapter 3

Scales and Direction

Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star


Short Answer Questions

Question 1

How is direction shown on a map?

Answer

The direction is shown on the map with the help of North-South line . The arrow indicating up is considered as north and the arrow which indicates down, depicts south direction.
The line perpendicular to the North South line represent the east-west direction. The line on the right depicts east direction and the line towards the left depicts the west direction.

Question 2

What do you mean by R.F.?

Answer

It is a method of representing scale on the map. It is expressed as a fraction showing the ratio of a unit distance on the map and the distance measured in the same units on the ground.

Question 3

What is the advantage of R.F.?

Answer

The main advantage of R.F. is that it is only a fraction and is independent of any particular unit of measurement. It can be converted into any particular unit of measurement and has universal application.

Question 4

Explain Magnetic declination with the help of a diagram.

Answer

The angle between the true north-south line and the magnetic north-south line is known as magnetic declination.

Question 5

Why are 'True North' and 'Grid North' different?

Answer

'True North' and 'Grid North' are different because of the spherical shape of the earth.

Question 6

Convert the following numerical scale (R.F.) into statement scales:

(a) 1:1000
(b) 1:50,000
(c) 1:5,00,000

Answer

(a) R.F. = 1:1000 = 1 cm to 1000 cm
(Since 100 cm = 1 m, therefore 1000 cm = 10 m)
Hence, the scale is 1 cm to 10 m.

(b) R.F. = 1:50,000 = 1 cm to 50,000 cm
(Since 100 cm = 1 m, therefore 50,000 cm = 500 m)
Hence, the scale is 1 cm to 500 m.

(c) R.F. = 1:5,00,000 = 1 cm to 5,00,000 cm
(Since 1,00,000 cm = 1 km, therefore 5,00,000 cm = 5 km)
Hence, the scale is 1 cm to 5 km.

Question 7

Convert the following into numerical scales (R.F):

(a) 10 centimetres to kilometre
(b) 1 centimetre to 20 kilometres
(c) 2 cm to 5 km
(d) 6 inch to 1 mile
(e) 1 inch to 2 1/2 miles
(f) 7 cm to 6.3 km

Answer

(a) The scale is 10 cm to 1 km = 10 cm to 1,00,000 cm
(Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 10 / 1,00,000
R.F. = 1:10,000

(b) The scale is 1 cm to 20 km = 1 cm to 20,00,000 cm
(Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 1 / 20,00,000
R.F. = 1:20,00,000

(c) The scale is 2 cm to 5 km = 2 cm to 5,00,000 cm
(Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 2 / 5,00,000
R.F. = 1:2,50,000

(d) The scale is 6 inch to 1 mile = 6 inch to 63,360 inches
(Since 1 mile = 63,360 inches)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 6 / 63,360
R.F. = 1:10,560

(e) The scale is 1 inch to 2.5 miles = 1 inch to 1,58,400 inches
(Since 1 mile = 63,360 inches)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 1 / 1,58,400 R.F. = 1:1,58,400

(f) The scale is 7 cm to 6.3 km = 7 cm to 6,30,000 cm
(Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 7 / 6,30,000
R.F. = 1:90,000

Distinguish between

Question 1

Statement Scale and Graphic Scale

Answer

Statement Scale

Graphic Scale

Scale is stated in words. We make a statement about it.

Scale is represented by a straight line divided into equal parts to show what these marking represent on the actual ground.

If the map is reduced or enlarged, a new scale needs to be worked out.

This scale stands valid even when the map is reduced or enlarged.

Question 2

True North and Magnetic North

Answer

True North

Magnetic North

True north is the direction indicated by the north star.

The north to which the compass needle points is called magnetic north.

True north is a fixed point on the globe.

Magnetic north is not a fixed.

Answer the following questions

Question 1(a)

What is a Scale? Name the main methods of representing the scale of a map.

Answer

The scale of a map denotes the proportion that the distance between any two points on the map bears to the distance between the same two points on the surface of the earth.

The main methods of representing the scale of a map are-

  1. A statement
  2. Graphic or Linear scale
  3. Representative Fraction

Question 1(b)

Convert the following statements into R.F.

(a) 25 cm on the map = 5 km on ground.
(b) 2½ inches on the map = 5 miles on ground.
(c) 7 cm on the map = 63000 metres on ground.
(d) 5 cm = 500 metres.
(e) 15 cm = 6 km.
(f) 10 cm =1 km.
(g) 12 cm = 72000 metres.

Answer

(a) The scale is 25 cm to 5 km = 25 cm to 5,00,000 cm
(Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 25 / 5,00,000
R.F. = 1:20,000

(b) The scale is 2½ inches to 5 miles = 2.5 inches to 3,16,800 inches
(Since 1 mile = 63,360 inches)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 2.5 / 3,16,800
R.F. = 1:1,58,400

(c) The scale is 7 cm to 63000 m = 7 cm to 63,00,000 cm
(Since 1 m = 100 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 7 / 63,00,000
R.F. = 1:9,00,000

(d) The scale is 5 cm to 500 m = 5 cm to 50,000 cm
(Since 1 m = 100 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 5 / 50,000
R.F. = 1:10,000

(e) The scale is 15 cm to 6 km = 15 cm to 6,00,000 cm
(Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 15 / 6,00,000
R.F. = 1:40,000

(f) The scale is 10 cm to 1 km = 10 cm to 1,00,000 cm
(Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 10 / 1,00,000
R.F. = 1:10,000

(g) The scale is 12 cm to 72000 m = 12 cm to 72,00,000 cm
(Since 1 m = 100 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 12 / 72,00,000
R.F. = 1:6,00,000

Question 2

Convert the following representative fractions into statements:

(i) 1: 63360 (to show miles).
(ii) 1: 1000000 (to show kilometres).
(iii) 1: 100 (to show metres).
(iv) 1: 10 (to show metres).
(v) 1: 200,000 (to show kilometres).
(vi) 1: 50 (to show metres and centimetres).

Answer

(i) R.F. = 1:63360
That means 1 inch on the map = 63360 inches on the ground
The scale is 1 inch to 1 mile
(Since 1 mile = 63,360 inches)

(ii) R.F. = 1:10,00,000
That means 1 cm on the map = 10,00,000 cm on the ground
The scale is 1 cm to 10 km
(Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm)

(iii) R.F. = 1:100
That means 1 cm on the map = 100 cm on the ground
The scale is 1 cm to 1 m
(Since 100 cm = 1 m)

(iv) R.F. = 1:10
That means 1 cm on the map = 10 cm on the ground
The scale is 10 cm to 1 m
(Since 1 m = 100 cm)

(v) R.F. = 1:2,00,000
That means 1 cm on the map = 2,00,000 cm on the ground
The scale is 1 cm to 2 km
(Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm)

(vi) R.F. = 1:50
That means 1 cm on the map = 50 cm on the ground
The scale is 10 cm to 5 m
(Since 1 m = 100 cm)

Question 4

The distance between New Delhi Station and Safdarjung Enclave bus stop is 20 km. On the map of Delhi, it has been shown by a line of 3.5 cm. Draw the linear scale of the map and calculate the R.F.

Answer

According to the given question,
The scale is 3.5 cm to 20 km = 3.5 cm to 20,00,000 cm
(Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 3.5 / 20,00,000
R.F. = 1:571428.57

Question 5

On the map of India the cartographer forgot to draw the scale of the map. The student who knows the distance between Meerut and Delhi (70km), was asked to complete the scale. How will the student draw the scale if he measures the distance between Delhi and Meerut on the map to be 5 cm? Give the procedure, draw the scale and find out the R.F.

Answer

According to the given question,
The scale is 5 cm to 70 km = 5 cm to 70,00,000 cm
(Since 1 km = 1,00,000 cm)
R.F. = Distance on the map / Distance on the ground
R.F. = 5 / 70,00,000
R.F. = 1:14,00,000

Study the given map extract and answer the following questions

Study map extract and answer questions. Chapter 3 Scales and Direction, Total Geography ICSE Class 10

Question 1

Find the area in sq. km. of the area enclosed within the Eastings 63 to 66 and Northings 30 to 33.

Answer

Number of complete squares = 9
Since each grid square measures 1 km x 1 km, the area of the area enclosed within the Eastings 63 to 66 and Northings 30 to 33 will be 9 sq. km.

Question 2

Find the compass direction of the following:
(i) Gulabganj from Pamera
(ii) Malgaon from Sirori

Answer

(i) Gulabganj lies to the south-east of Pamera.

(ii) Malgaon lies to the south-west of Sirori.

Chapter 4

Map Reading and Interpretation

Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star


Short Answer Questions

Question 1

State what is indicated by the following symbols about the land use:

(a) Tanks and canals
(b) Open scrub
(c) Stony waste
(d) Causeway

Answer

(a) Presence of tanks and canals indicates that the land is used for agriculture.

(b) Presence of open scrub indicates that the land is used for sheep and goat rearing.

(c) Presence of stony waste indicates that the land is uncultivable.

(d) Presence of causeway indicates a dry river and desert regions which receive only seasonal rainfall.

Question 2

Where are the thickly settled areas located in a village?

Answer

The thickly settled areas located over fertile plains and on wide river valleys.

Question 3

What does a dendritic drainage pattern indicate about the land?

Answer

A dendritic drainage pattern indicates that the land has soft surface rock material suitable for agriculture.

Question 4

How can the climate of a place be inferred from the topo-sheet?

Answer

Climate of a place can be inferred from the latitudinal extent of the area covered by the toposheet and the type of vegetation found there. For example, the climate of a place 10° N latitude will be warmer than the place at 35° N latitude.

Vegetation type also gives an indication of the climate of a place. For example, rain forests are found in the heavy rainfall areas, where the temperature is between 25°C and the average humidity exceeds 77%. Similarly, the presence of scanty growth of cactus, thorny bushes and grass suggest arid and semi-arid climate.

Question 5

What are the factors that affect settlements in an area?

Answer

The factors that affect settlements in an area are as follows-

Physical factors:

  1. Body of water (transportation routes, water for drinking and farming)
  2. Flat land (easy to build)
  3. Fertile soil (for crops)
  4. Forests (timber and housing)influence the settlements in an area

Human factors:

  1. People who share a common language, religion or culture
  2. Social network or supports
  3. Quality of life
  4. Employment

Match the following

Question 1

Evidences

Occupation

Settlement near the main road

Agriculture

Parks

Forestry

Coast, lakes

Cattle grazing

Yellow patch

Fishery

Meadows

Entertainment

Green patch

Trade

Answer

Evidences

Occupation

Settlement near the main road

Trade

Parks

Entertainment

Coast, lakes

Fishery

Yellow patch

Agriculture

Meadows

Cattle grazing

Green patch

Forestry

What do the following diagrams indicate?

Question 1

What does the following diagram indicates? Write short notes on the features as indicated by the diagram.

What does the following diagram indicates? Write short notes on the features as indicated by the diagram. Chapter 4 Map Reading and Interpretation Question 1, Total Geography ICSE Class 10

Answer

The diagram shows a dispersed settlement. It is a pattern of rural settlement in which most of the population lives in farms, houses and cottages scattered over a large area. This settlement is associated with regions of high land, poor soils and an abundance of available sources of water. It is also associated with large farms and sparse population.

Question 2

What does the following diagram indicates? Write short notes on the features as indicated by the diagram.

What does the following diagram indicates? Write short notes on the features as indicated by the diagram. Chapter 4 Map Reading and Interpretation Question 2, Total Geography ICSE Class 10

Answer

The diagram shows a nucleated settlement. It is a form of rural settlement in which farms and other buildings are clustered together, often around some central feature like a church or police chowki etc. This pattern is encouraged by the need for defence, the availability of water supply at particular locations and the development of modern means of transport.

Chapter 6

Location, Extent and Physical Features

Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star


Answer the following questions

Question 1(a)

Give two differences between the Eastern Coastal Plains and the Western Coastal Plains.

Answer

Eastern Coastal Plains

Western Coastal Plains

They are a product of emergence due to deposits.

They are a product of submergence of land.

They have a linear coastline.

They are indented with many natural ports.

Question 1(b)

What kind of mountains are the Himalayas? By what name are the offshoots of the Eastern Himalayas known?

Answer

Himalayas are active fold mountains. The offshoots of the eastern Himalayas are known as Darjeeling Himalaya, Sikkim Himalaya, Bhutan Himalaya, and Arunachal Himalaya.

Question 1(c)

State how the Northern Plains were formed.

Answer

The Northern Plains were formed by the deposits brought in by the three major rivers- Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra and their tributaries. Alluvium was deposited at the foothills of the Himalayas for millions of years. These deposits are now the fertile Northern Plains.

Question 1(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) The rivers of south India are less suitable for irrigation than the rivers of north India.

(ii) The Peninsular Plateau of India is considered to be a part of Gondwanaland hundreds of millions of years ago.

(iii) The Narmada and Tapi do not form deltas.

Answer

(i) The rivers of south India are less suitable for irrigation than the rivers of north India because rivers of north India are perennial as they are snow fed but the rivers of south India are seasonal as they are rain fed.

(ii) The Peninsular Plateau of India is considered to be a part of Gondwanaland hundreds of millions of years ago because due to the tectonic movements, the Indo Australian plate drifted after being separated from the Gondwana land towards the north. Moreover, the rocks that make up the plateau match those in Africa in age, type and the layer sequence in which they occur.

(iii) The Narmada and Tapi do not form deltas because they flow through hard rocks and are not able to form distributaries before they enter the Arabian sea.

Question 2(a)

Give two differences between the Plains of North India and the Coastal Plains.

Answer

Plains of North India

Coastal Plains

These plains are located in the mainland of India, towards the south of Himalayas.

These plains are located along the coastline of southern India.

Farming is the main occupation of the people.

Fishing is the main occupation of the people in the coastal region.

Question 2(b)

Name two rivers of the Peninsular Plateau that flow towards the Arabian Sea. Name two rivers that flow into the Bay of Bengal.

Answer

Two rivers of the Peninsular Plateau that flow towards the Arabian Sea are Narmada and Tapi. Two rivers that flow into the Bay of Bengal are Mahanadi and Godavari.

Question 2(c)

(i) Name the four parts of the Peninsular Plateau of India.

(ii) Name the landforms that form the boundaries of the Peninsular Plateau.

Answer

(i) The four parts of the Peninsular Plateau of India are-

  1. The Central Plateaus
  2. The Eastern Plateaus
  3. The Kathiawar and Kutch
  4. The Deccan Plateau

(ii) The landforms that form the boundaries of the Peninsular Plateau are-

  1. Aravali range in the north-west
  2. Bundelkhand plateau in the extreme north
  3. Western ghats in the west
  4. Eastern ghats in the east

Question 2(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Less land is available for agriculture on the West Coast than on the East Coast.

(ii) Access through the Western Ghats is difficult.

(iii) The Peninsular Plateau of India is rich in mineral resources.

Answer

(i) Less land is available for agriculture on the West Coast than on the East Coast because eastern coastal plains are wider than the Western Coastal Plains. Moreover, the deltas formed by rivers like Kaveri, Krishna and Godavari are very fertile and useful for agriculture.

(ii) Access through the Western Ghats is difficult because they have a high elevation of about 900-1600m. They are continuous and can be crossed through passes only.

(iii) The Peninsular Plateau of India is rich in mineral resources as it is covered with basaltic lava and lava sheets which are rich in minerals.

Question 3(a)

Give two differences between Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats.

Answer

Eastern Ghats

Western Ghats

They rise gently from the east coast.

They rise steeply from the west coast.

The hills are discontinuous.

The hills are continuous.

Question 3(b)

Name the source of the river Ganga. Where does this river enter the plains?

Answer

Gangotri glacier in the Himalayas is the source of the river Ganga. This river enters the plains at Haridwar, Uttarakhand.

Question 3(c)

(i) Name any two left bank tributaries of the Ganga.

(ii) Is Ganga a perennial river? Give reason.

Answer

(i) Two left bank tributaries of the Ganga are Gomti and Ghaghra.

(ii) Yes, Ganga is a perennial river as it has water flowing throughout the year. It is fed by rain in the rainy season, melting of ice in summer season and snow in winter season.

Question 3(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) The Northern Plains of India are one of the most densely populated regions of the world.

(ii) The Deccan Plateau is an example of a dissected plateau.

(iii) The rivers of South India are easier to tap for power than the rivers of north India.

Answer

(i) The Northern Plains of India are one of the most densely populated regions of the world as they are endowed with fertile soil, numerous rivers and favourable climate.

(ii) The Deccan Plateau is an example of a dissected plateau because several seasonal rivers flow across the Deccan plateau.

(iii) The rivers of South India are easier to tap for power than the rivers of north India as the rivers are marked by waterfalls and have less silt as they erode igneous rocks.

Question 4(a)

Give two differences between rivers of Northern India and the rivers of Southern (Peninsular) India.

Answer

Rivers of Northern India

Rivers of Southern India

They are perennial as they are snow-fed.

They are seasonal as they are rain fed.

These rivers are longer.

These rivers are comparatively shorter.

Question 4(b)

Name the only significant river of the Rajasthan Plains. Name the largest river island in the world.

Answer

The only significant river of the Rajasthan Plains is Luni. The largest river island in the world is Majuli.

Question 4(c)

(i) How is cultivation carried out in the Rajasthan Plains?

(ii) Name the fertile tracts of these plains.

Answer

(i) Cultivation is done in small patches in this area with the water provided by small streams which originate from the Aravali during the rainy season.

(ii) The fertile tracts of these plains are known as Rohi.

Question 4(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Most of the rivers in South India flow into the Bay of Bengal.

(ii) The Rann of Kutch is not cultivated.

(iii) The Rajasthan Plains are an area of inland drainage.

Answer

(i) Most of the rivers in South India flow into the Bay of Bengal because the peninsular plateau gently slopes from west to east. Hence, the rivers flow from higher altitude to lower altitude and fall into Bay of Bengal.

(ii) The Rann of Kutch is not cultivated because it is a marshy lowland covered with salty water.

(iii) The Rajasthan Plains are an area of inland drainage because the rivers of the area do not have sufficient water to reach the sea and dry up or disappear into the sand.

Chapter 7

Climate

Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star


Answer the following questions

Question 1(a)

Name the type of climate prevailing over India. Mention any two factors responsible for it.

Answer

India has a tropical monsoon type of climate. Two factors responsible for this type of climate are-

  1. The Himalayas
  2. Varied Relief

Question 1(b)

State two important characteristic features of the Monsoon rainfall in India.

Answer

Two important characteristic features of the Monsoon rainfall in India are-

  1. Reversal of wind system.
  2. Uneven distribution of rainfall over the year.

Question 1(c)

(i) What is 'Monsoon'?

(ii) Name the place in India which receives the heaviest rainfall.

Answer

(i) The word Monsoon is derived from the Arabic language which means Mansoon or weather. Monsoon is also used to denote the reversal of winds.

(ii) Cherrapunji and Mawsynram in Meghalaya receive the heaviest rainfall.

Question 1(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Mumbai is warmer than Kanpur in December.

(ii) Punjab gets rain in winter.

(iii) The Indo-Gangetic Plain gets some rainfall in the months of December and January.

Answer

(i) Mumbai is warmer than Kanpur in December because Mumbai is located near the sea and hence it experiences moderate climate throughout the year. Kanpur experiences continental type of climate where summers are extremely hot and winters are extremely cold.

(ii) Punjab gets rain in winter season due to some weak temperate cyclones from the Mediterranean Sea.

(iii) The Indo-gangetic plain gets some rainfall in the month of December and January because of the western disturbances, which originate in West Asia and in the regions near the Mediterranean sea. These westerly depressions bring winter rainfall over the Indo-Gangetic Plains.

Question 2(a)

Name two factors which affect the climate of a place.

Answer

Two factors which affect the climate of a place are-

  1. Distance from sea or ocean
  2. Altitude of the place

Question 2(b)

Mention two characteristics of the South-West Monsoon.

Answer

Two characteristics of the South-West Monsoon are-

  1. This season lasts from June to September.
  2. Winds blow from sea to land and are moisture laden winds.

Question 2(c)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) When the Malabar coast is receiving heavy rainfall in July, the Tamil Nadu coast is comparatively dry.

(ii) The Northern Plains of India have a Continental type of climate.

(iii) Central Maharashtra receives less rainfall than Western Maharashtra.

Answer

(i) When the Malabar coast is receiving heavy rainfall in July, the Tamil Nadu coast is dry because it lies in the rain shadow region of Arabian sea branch and Bay of Bengal is parallel to the coast.

(ii) The Northern Plains of India have a continental type of climate because it is away from the moderating influence of the sea. Thus, the summers are extremely hot and winters are extremely cold.

(iii) Central Maharashtra lies in the rain shadow region whereas coastal Maharashtra is on the windward side of Western Ghats. Since places situated in the rain shadow region receive less rainfall, Central Maharashtra receives less rainfall than Western Maharashtra.

Question 2(d)

Study the climatic data given below and answer the questions that follow:

Month

Jan

Feb

Mar

Apr

May

Jun

Jul

Aug

Sep

Oct

Nov

Dec

Temperature °C

23.1

24.8

26.5

29.3

32

32.8

33.1

32.1

30.5

29.3

28.7

26.1

Rainfall cm

15.3

10.1

0.3

0.1

1.3

4.5

6.1

10.2

10.5

20.1

16.8

19.0

(i) Calculate the annual rainfall experienced by the station.

(ii) Suggest a name of this station, giving a reason for your answer.

(iii) Name the season during which rainfall is the heaviest.

Answer

(i) The annual rainfall experienced by the station is 114.3 cm.

(ii) The station is Tamil Nadu as the temperature remains moderate throughout the year and the rainfall is heaviest during the winter season.

(iii) The season during which rainfall is the heaviest is retreating monsoon.

Question 3(a)

State two points of difference in climate between the northern and the southern zone of India due latitude.

Answer

Two points of difference in climate between the northern and the southern zone of India due latitude are-

  1. The northern zone has cold winter season and hot summer season while the southern zone is warmer than the north ut does not have a clear-cut winter season.
  2. The northern zone doesn't have the mid day sun almost vertically overhead during any part of the year, while the southern zone has the mid day sun almost vertically overhead at least twice a year.

Question 3(b)

State briefly the impact of water bodies on the climate in coastal areas.

Answer

The water bodies have a great impact on the climate in coastal areas. Water bodies act as a major source of moisture to the summer monsoons and bring heavy rainfall to the whole area. Such areas experience moderate climate, neither too hot nor too cold.

Question 3(c)

(i) What are Jet Streams?

(ii) How do they influence the climate of India?

Answer

(i) Jet streams are cold fast blowing winds that develop in the upper layers of the atmosphere.

(ii) They influence the climate of India as the westerly jet stream prevails over the North Indian Plains during the winter months, while the easterly jet stream steers the tropical depression over India. These depressions play a significant role in the distribution of monsoon rainfall in the subcontinent. The highest rainfall occurs along the track of these depressions.

Question 3(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Variations in the type of climate in different regions of India.

(ii) Most parts of India receive rainfall between June and September.

(iii) South-West Monsoon withdraw from northern India in October.

Answer

(i) India has a varied climate due to the presence of various relief features like mountains, deserts, presence of seas etc. Further the large latitudinal extent, altitude, presence of many mountain ranges and nearness to the oceans results in different climatic conditions in different regions.

(ii) Most parts of India receive rainfall between June and September because the differential heating of land and sea during summer season causes the monsoon winds to drift towards the subcontinent.

(iii) South-West Monsoon withdraw from northern India in October because the monsoon trough of low pressure over the Ganga plains becomes weaker due to the apparent southward movement of the sun. The low pressure trough is gradually replaced by high pressure.

Question 4(a)

How does El-Nino affect the climate of India?

Answer

El-Nino increases the surface temperature of the sea and affects the movement of monsoon winds in the Indian Ocean and causes weak drought-like situation in the Indian sub continent.

Question 4(b)

State two characteristic features of North-East Monsoon.

Answer

Two characteristic features of North-East Monsoon are-

  1. These winds blow from December to February.
  2. These winds blow from land to sea.

Question 4(c)

Mention three important features of rainfall in India.

Answer

Three important features of rainfall in India are-

  1. There is rainfall over three months and the rest of the year is mostly dry. Seventy percent of annual rainfall occurs in the rainy season.
  2. The rains are mainly of relief type. The windward slopes of the mountains get more rainfall than the leeward side.
  3. Only a small portion of the rainfall is received from sources other than the monsoon, like cyclonic rainfall and convectional rainfall.

Question 4(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Pune receives less rainfall than Mumbai.

(ii) Tropical cyclones bring heavy rainfall but temperate cyclones bring light rainfall.

(iii) Kerala has a tropical climate while Punjab has a continental climate.

Answer

(i) Pune receives less rainfall than Mumbai because Mumbai lies on the windward side of the Western Ghats while Pune lies on the leeward side. Since places lying on the leeward side receive less rainfall, Pune receives less rainfall than Mumbai.

(ii) A tropical cyclone is mainly formed due to the development of a low pressure area ove the sea, this results in high humidity and temperature which causes heavy rainfall. However, in a temperate cyclone wind speed is low and all sectors of the cyclone have different temperatures which is followed by continuous light rainfall for many days.

(iii) Kerala has a tropical climate while Punjab has a continental climate because Kerala is situated near water bodies while Punjab is situated in the interior of the subcontinent. Influences by the sea, Kerala experiences maritime climate, neither too hot nor too cold while Punjab experiences continental type of climate, very hot in summer and very cold in winter.

Question 5(a)

Distinguish between 'Burst of Monsoon' and 'Break of Monsoon'.

Answer

Burst of Monsoon

Break of Monsoon

The sudden violent onset of rainfall in the first week of June is termed as the burst of monsoon.

When the South-west monsoon fails to bring rainfall for two or more weeks and there is a dry period in the rainy season, it is called break of monsoon.

Question 5(b)

Define:
(i) Western Disturbances
(ii) Mango Showers

Answer

(i) Western Disturbances — A characteristic feature of the cold weather season is the inflow of depressions from the west and the north-west. These low pressure systems are called western disturbances. They originate in West Asia and the regions near the Mediterranean Sea. They travel eastwards across Iran and Pakistan and reach India during the winter season. They bring the much needed winter rains over the plains and snowfall in the mountains.

(ii) Mango Showers — Mango showers are the pre-monsoon showers in the Indian states of Karnataka, Kerala, Konkan and Goa that help in the ripening of mangoes. These showers are also important for tea and coffee plants.

Question 5(c)

(i) Name two regions which get very little rain from the Summer Monsoon.

(ii) Name any two local winds which blow in India during the summer season.

Answer

(i) Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan get very little rain from the Summer Monsoon.

(ii) Two local winds which blow in India during the summer season are Loo and Kalbaisakhi.

Question 5(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) The monsoon rain is unevenly distributed over India.

(ii) Excessive cold in north India during winter season.

(iii) Most of the India remains dry during the North-East Monsoon season.

Answer

(i) The monsoon rain is unevenly distributed over India because most parts of India receive relief rainfall, therefore windward sides always receive more rainfall than the leeward side. Some places like Aravali and Coromandel coast lie parallel to south west monsoon winds, hence, are not able to obstruct these wind and receive very little rainfall.

(ii) Excessive cold in north India during winter season because north India is far from the sea and the equator. Hence, it experiences continental type of climate — cold winters and hot summers.

(iii) Most of the India remains dry during the North-East Monsoon season because north-east trade winds blow from land to sea and hence, do not carry moisture necessary for rainfall.

Question 6(a)

What is meant by the season of 'Retreating Monsoon'?

Answer

During the months of October-November, the south-west monsoon winds become weaker and start to retreat from the skies of North India. This phase of the monsoon is known as the retreating monsoon.

Question 6(b)

Name the months in which Retreating Monsoon rain is experienced.

Answer

Retreating Monsoon rain is experienced in the months of October and November.

Question 6(c)

(i) Name the seasons during which the North-East Trade Winds dominate.

(ii) How do these winds affect the climate of India?

Answer

(i) The North-East Trade Winds dominate during the winter season.

(ii) North-east trade winds blow from land to sea, hence, most parts of the country remain dry. These winds may cause some amount of rainfall on the Coromandel coast. The nights are extremely cold while the days are pleasantly warm.

Question 6(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) The northern plains of India do not freeze in winter.

(ii) In spite of Aravali Range, Rajasthan receives scanty rainfall.

(iii) Patna receives heavier rain than Delhi.

Answer

(i) The northern plains of India do not freeze in winter because the Himalayas form a climatic barrier separating the Indian subcontinent from the rest of Asia. They prevent the cold Siberian winds from entering India.

(ii) The state of Rajasthan receive scanty rainfall because it lies in the rain-shadow region of the Aravali Mountains. The Aravali Hills run parallel to the Arabian Sea branch, and thus do not form any barrier to intercept the winds. The winds thus passes through Rajasthan without causing any rainfall.

(iii) Patna receives heavier rain than Delhi because Patna is on the eastern side as compared to Delhi and places situated on the eastern side receive heavier rainfall than the places situated on the western side of the country.

Question 7(a)

Mention the different sources of rain in Punjab and Tamil Nadu during the winter season.

Answer

During the winter season, Punjab receives rainfall from temperate cyclones that originate from the Mediterranean Sea. These cyclones are not of great intensity. Tamil Nadu receives rainfall from the north east monsoon winds that blow over the Bay of Bengal and bring winter rainfall to the state.

Question 7(b)

What is meant by 'rainshadow area'? Give an example and state the mountains which are responsible for the rainshadow area.

Answer

A rain shadow area is an area of dry land that lies on the leeward side of a mountain. High mountains act as barriers for cold if they are high enough and lie in the path of rain – bearing winds. The leeward side of the mountains remains dry.

The western ghats in India are an example of mountains causing rain shadow area. The moisture laden winds from the Arabian Sea branch shed most of its moisture on the western slopes of the western ghats due to which by the time they reach the eastern slopes of western ghats the winds have less moisture and this side receives very less rainfall. For example, Mahabaleshwar situated on the Western side of western ghats, receives 250 cm of rainfall whereas Pune, only a few km away, receives less than 70 cm of rainfall.

Question 7(c)

State the benefits that are derived from the local winds that blow in summer in the following areas:

(i) Kerala

(ii) West Bengal

Answer

(i) During the summer season, the local hot winds blowing in Kerala are called Mango Showers. They bring rainfall which is very important for the ripening of the mangoes grown there.

(ii) During the summer season, the local winds blowing in West Bengal are called Kalbaisakhi. They bring rainfall which is important for jute and rice crops.

Question 7(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Western Rajasthan receives no rain from the Arabian Sea branch of the South-West Monsoon winds.

(ii) Mangalore is not cold even in the month of December.

(iii) Even in summer Shimla is cooler than Delhi.

Answer

(i) Western Rajasthan receives no rain from the Arabian Sea branch of the South-West Monsoon winds because the Arabian Sea branch of the South west monsoon blows parallel to the Aravali hills. Since the moisture-bearing winds do not strike the mountains, they do not cause any rainfall in Western Rajasthan.

(ii) Mangalore is situated along the Western Coast of India. Therefore, it experiences moderate impact of land breezes and sea breezes all through the year. This keeps the weather of Mangalore moderate i.e. neither too hot nor too cool. Hence, it is not cold even in the month of December.

(iii) Shimla is cooler than Delhi in summer because it is located at a higher altitude than Delhi and the temperature decreases with the height at a rate of 1°C for every 165 m of ascend.

Question 8(a)

Give two points of difference between the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch of South-West Monsoon Winds.

Answer

Arabian Sea branch of South-West Monsoon Winds

Bay of Bengal branch of South-West Monsoon Winds

It enters Indian landmass after blowing over a vast open sea. During this period, it collects a lot of moisture.

It travels a shorter distance and carries less moisture.

It hits against the Western Ghats as soon as it blows over the land.

It has to travel a long distance over land before it hits against the mountains.

Question 8(b)

Name any two states that receive rain in January-February from North-East Monsoons.

Answer

The eastern coast of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh receives much rainfall during the winter season through north-east monsoons.

Question 8(c)

(i) What causes the winter rain along Coromandel coast?

(ii) Name a state which gets sufficient rainfall from the winter monsoon.

Answer

(i) North East Trade winds cause the winter rain along Coromandel coast.

(ii) Tamil Nadu gets sufficient rainfall from the winter monsoon.

Question 8(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Western part of Rajasthan is a desert region.

(ii) Kochi has a lower annual range of temperature than Agra.

(iii) The Northern plains and Punjab receive winter cyclonic rain in winter.

Answer

(i) The western part of Rajasthan is a desert because the Aravali range lies parallel to the moisture laden winds coming from the Arabian Sea. Since they do not obstruct the winds, it does not rain in western Rajasthan.

(ii) Kochi has a coastal location while Agra is located away from the sea. Due to the influence of the moist winds from the sea, Kochi experiences a moderate climatic condition throughout the year whereas Agra has extreme temperature conditions resulting in high annual range of temperature than Kochi.

(iii) The Northern plains and Punjab receive winter cyclonic rain in winter due to the western disturbances entering the Indian sub-continent from the North-west.

Question 9(a)

Give two points of difference between Tropical Cyclones and Temperate Cyclones.

Answer

Tropical Cyclones

Temperate Cyclones

These are tropical depressions originating in the Bay of Bengal caused by the local variations of heat and moisture.

These low pressure systems originate in West Asia and the regions near the Mediterranean Sea.

They are active in November and December.

They are active between December and February.

Question 9(b)

An Inter-School Football Match at Visakhapatnam from November 1 to 3 had to be cancelled because of bad weather. Give an explanation for this happening. Your explanation should provide the technical name of this season in India, as well as the pressure conditions over the Bay of Bengal.

Answer

An interschool Football Match at Vishakapatnam from November 1 to 3 had to be cancelled because of the cyclones. This is a season of retreating monsoon. During this season the low pressure conditions of the land are transferred to the centre of the Bay of Bengal that gives rise to cyclonic depressions.

Question 9(c)

(i) Name one region which gets rainfall from the Retreating Monsoon.

(ii) Name two areas which get more than 200 cm of rainfall in India.

Answer

(i) Tamil Nadu gets rainfall from the Retreating Monsoon.

(ii) Meghalaya and Arunachal Pradesh get more than 200 cm of rainfall in India.

Question 9(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Kanyakumari experiences an equable climate.

(ii) Chennai has a lower annual range of temperature than Lucknow.

(iii) Mangalore experiences more rainfall than Mysore.

Answer

(i) Kanyakumari experiences equable climate because it is located near the coast, and there is not much difference between the temperatures during the summer and winter.

(ii) Chennai is located at lower latitude and is closer to the equator as compared to Lucknow. Besides Chennai is close to the sea so it experiences moderate climate whereas Lucknow is located away from the sea and hence it experiences continental type of climate. Therefore, Chennai has a lower annual range of temperature than Lucknow.

(iii) Mangalore lies on the windward side of Western Ghats and Mysore lies on the leeward side of the Western Ghats. Since areas located on the windward side receive more rainfall than the areas located on the leeward side, Mangalore experiences more rainfall than Mysore.

Question 10(a)

From where does the winter showers in Western Uttar Pradesh and Punjab originate?

Answer

Winter showers in Western Uttar Pradesh and Punjab originate from the weak temperate cyclones from the Mediterranean Sea.

Question 10(b)

State the economic importance of Kalbaisakhis in West Bengal and Assam.

Answer

Kalbaisakhis are of economic importance in West Bengal and Assam because they bring rainfall in these regions. This rainfall is quite beneficial for growing jute and rice in West Bengal and tea in Assam.

Question 10(c)

Briefly explain the role of the Himalayas in determining the climate of India during:

(i) the hot weather season

(ii) the southwest monsoon season

Answer

(i) The Himalayas form a climatic barrier separating the Indian subcontinent from the rest of Asia. They prevent the cold Siberian winds from entering the Indian region and from India becoming a cold desert.

(ii) During the South West Monsoon season, the Himalayas play an important role in determining the amount of rainfall received by several places in the country. They act as a barrier to the South West Monsoon winds coming from the Indian Ocean. These winds when strike the mountains bring rainfall to the northern plains.

Question 10(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Chennai receives less rain than Thiruvananthapuram although it has more rainy days.

(ii) Shillong gets less than 200 cm of rainfall in a year while Cherrapunji receives more than 1250 cm of rainfall.

(iii) Jaipur has a higher annual range of temperature than Mumbai.

Answer

(i) Since Thiruvananthapuram lies on windward side of Western ghats therefore it receives heavy rainfall from South West monsoon while Chennai lies on the leeward side and gets rainfall from North East monsoon which is not as strong. Thiruvananthapuram also gets some rain from the retreating Monsoon.

(ii) Cherrapunji lies on the crest of the southern range of Khasi hills. It receives rain from the South West Monsoon Bay of Bengal Branch as it is in the pathway of these winds. Hence, it receives heavy rainfall. Shillong is located on the upper (leeward) side of the Garo-Khasi-Jaintia hills, which is a rain shadow area and hence, receives less than 200 cm of rainfall in a year.

(iii) Jaipur has a higher annual range of temperature than Mumbai because Jaipur is situated in the northern part of India, away from the sea. Hence, Jaipur experiences continental type of climate, too hot in summer and too cold in winter. Mumbai, on the other hand, is situated near the sea so it has a moderate type of climate, neither too hot nor too cold.

Chapter 8

Soil Resources

Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star


Answer the following questions

Question 1(a)

What is the soil? Name the four types of soil.

Answer

Soil is the thin mixture of small rock particles and rotting organic matter that covers the surface of the earth. The four types of soil are-

  1. Alluvial soil
  2. Black soil
  3. Red soil
  4. Laterite soil

Question 1(b)

State any two factors responsible for the formation of soil.

Answer

Two factors responsible for the formation of soil are-

  1. deposition of sediments by rivers
  2. weathering of lava rocks

Question 1(c)

(i) How can you say that soil has evolved over millions of years?

(ii) Name one important constituent of soil that adds fertility to the soil.

Answer

(i) Soil changes with age - As a soil ages, it gradually starts to look different from its parent material. That is because soil is dynamic. Its components—minerals, water, air, organic matter, and organisms—constantly change.

(ii) One important constituent of soil that adds fertility to the soil is humus.

Question 1(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) The colour of alluvium soil varies in different areas.

(ii) Khadar is more fertile than bhangar soil.

(iii) Black soil has a kind of self-ploughing characteristic.

Answer

(i) The colour of alluvium soil varies in different areas because its shades depend on the depth of deposition, the texture of the materials and the time taken for maturity.

(ii) Khadar is more fertile than bhangar soil as new layers are deposited year after year during monsoon floods.

(iii) Black soil has a kind of self-ploughing characteristic because during dry season, it shrinks and develops big cracks which help in air circulation. This characteristic causes a kind of self-ploughing.

Question 2(a)

How are alluvial soils formed?

Answer

Alluvial soil is formed by the sediments brought down by rivers. The rivers deposit very fine particles of soil called alluvium in their plains during the course of their long journey. The resultant alluvial soil is known as riverine soil.

Question 2(b)

Mention any two advantages of alluvial soil.

Answer

Two advantages of alluvial soil are-

  1. It is light and porous. So, it is easily tillable.
  2. It is suitable for the growth of a large variety of rabi and kharif crops.

Question 2(c)

(i) Why is soil a valuable resource for India?

(ii) Why is black soil considered a productive soil?

Answer

(i) Soil is a valuable resource for India because agriculture is the main occupation in India. Soil supports agriculture and it is the source of nutrients for many forms of life.

(ii) Black soil is considered a productive soil because it has high moisture retention capacity and more clay content which responds well to irrigation. It is suitable for the cultivation of cotton, jowar, wheat, linseed, gram, citrus fruits and vegetables, tobacco and sugarcane.

Question 2(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Different regions in India have different kinds of soil for agriculture.

(ii) Alluvial soils vary in texture.

(iii) Nearly all types of crops grow well in riverine soils.

Answer

(i) Different regions in India have different kinds of soil for agriculture because India is a vast region with varied natural environment. Several physiographic regions and different types of climate lead to the formation of different types of soil in different regions.

(ii) Alluvial soils vary in texture as in the upper reaches of the river valleys, the soil is dry, coarse, porous and sandy. Soil particles are large and non-uniform but as we move further down a river valley, the soil particles become smaller and more uniform. They are more compact, less compact and more moist.

(iii) Nearly all types of crops grow well in riverine soils because alluvial soil is a mixture of sand, clay and silt. It is rich in mineral and easily tillable. Its composition makes it suitable for the growth of a variety of crops.

Question 3(a)

Give two characteristic features of the soil found most suitable for growing cotton and sugarcane in Maharashtra.

Answer

Black soil is suitable for growing cotton and sugarcane in Maharashtra. Its characteristics are-

  1. It is black in colour.
  2. It has high quantities of lime, iron, magnesium and generally poor percentage of phosphorus, nitrogen and organic matter.

Question 3(b)

Name one soil of volcanic origin commonly found in India. Name one crop widely grown on this soil.

Answer

One soil of volcanic origin commonly found in India is black soil. Cotton is widely grown on this soil.

Question 3(c)

(i) Name the process by which Laterite soil is formed.

(ii) Mention one disadvantage of Laterite soil.

Answer

(i) Laterite soil is formed as a result of atmospheric weathering of rocks under the conditions of high rainfall and temperature with alternate wet and dry periods. It is the residual soil formed by leaching due to tropical rains.

(ii) One disadvantage of Laterite soil is that it does not retain moisture and hence, is infertile.

Question 3(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Deltaic alluvium is more fertile than the coastal alluvium.

(ii) Black soil is largely found in the Deccan Trap region.

(iii) Black soil is often referred to as Cotton soil or Regur soil.

Answer

(i) Deltaic alluvium is more fertile than coastal alluvium as new layers are deposited year after year during monsoonal floods. Also, deltaic alluvium is composed of fine silt and clay whereas coastal alluvium is full of lime nodules.

(ii) Black soil is found in the Deccan trap region because this region is formed due to the deposition of lava produced by the volcanic eruption. When lava rocks breaks down into finer particles due to weathering, it results in the formation of the black soil.

(iii) Black soil is often referred to as Cotton soil or Regur soil because it is black in colour and is suitable for cotton cultivation.

Question 4(a)

State the two sub-categories into which alluvial soil is generally divided. Which one of them is superior to the other? Why?

Answer

Two sub-categories into which alluvial soil is generally divided are khadar and bhangar.

Khadar is superior to bhangar because it is more fertile as new layers are deposited year after year during monsoon floods.

Question 4(b)

What are the characteristics of alluvial soil?

Answer

The characteristics of alluvial soil are:

  1. Colour — The colour of alluvial soil varies from light grey to deep black.
  2. Texture — In the upper reaches of the valleys, the soil is dry, coarse, porous and sandy with large and non-unifrom soil particles. In the lower reaches of the river valley, the soil particles become smaller and more uniform and more moist.
  3. Minerals — It varies in nature from sandy loam to clay. It is fertile with minerals like iron, magnesia, alumina, potash and lime but poor in phosphorus, nitrogen and organic matter.

Question 4(c)

(i) Which soil is suitable for growing coffee in Karnataka?

(ii) Mention two main characteristics of this soil.

Answer

(i) Laterite soil is suitable for growing coffee in Karnataka.

(ii) Two main characteristics of this soil are-

  1. It is red in colour due to the presence of iron oxide.
  2. It is of a coarse texture, soft and friable.

Question 4(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Laterite soil is useful for construction purpose.

(ii) Soils of the Western Ghats are affected by wind erosion.

(iii) The foothills of the Himalayas are prone to excessive soil erosion.

Answer

(i) Laterite soils are used as a building material because they become hard like iron when exposed to air. So, they are used as a building material. Laterite soils are red in color due to the presence of iron oxide. These soils are generally coarse in texture and friable and porous in nature.

(ii) Soils of the Western Ghats are affected by wind erosion because a large chunk of Western zone is arid or semi-arid and wind erosion is a result of extreme form of soil degradation due to aridity.

(iii) The foothills of the Himalayas are prone to excessive soil erosion because the vegetation over there is very less. There are not many plant or tree roots to hold the soil in place, which makes the foothills of the Himalayas prone to excessive soil erosion.

Question 5(a)

Name two States in India where Regur soil is found.

Answer

Regur soil is found in Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 5(b)

Give two points of difference between Regur and Alluvial soil.

Answer

Regur soil

Alluvial soil

It is formed by the weathering of lava rocks.

It is formed by deposition of sediments by rivers.

It is of black colour.

Its colour varies from light grey to deep black.

Question 5(c)

(i) Besides cotton, name the crops which grow well in Regur soil.

(ii) In what way does Regur soil help agriculture?

Answer

(i) Besides cotton, jowar, wheat, linseed, gram, citrus fruits and vegetables, tobacco and sugarcane grow well in Regur soil.

(ii) Regur soil helps agriculture as it is very fertile. In any season, it has moisture stored in its subsoil. This allows dry farming as well. In dry season, it forms big cracks which help in air circulation, and causes a kind of self ploughing.

Question 5(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Jowar is grown in Maharashtra.

(ii) Bajra is grown in Rajasthan.

(iii) Sugarcane is grown in Uttar Pradesh.

Answer

(i) Jowar is grown in Maharashtra because of the black regur soil which is rich in lime, potash-magnesium, carbonates, allumina and calcium.

(ii) Bajra is grown in Rajasthan because of the sandy soil found in this region. It is rich in soluble salts.

(iii) Sugarcane is grown in Uttar Pradesh because the climatic conditions and presence of alluvial soil support the cultivation of sugarcane.

Question 6(a)

Name two states where red soil is found. Mention two important crops grown in this soil.

Answer

Two states where red soil is found are Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. Two important crops grown in this soil are rice and tobacco.

Question 6(b)

State two advantages of this type of soil.

Answer

Two advantages of this type of soil are-

  1. It is porous, loose and aerated.
  2. It is ideal for dry farming.

Question 6(c)

(i) How is red soil formed?

(ii) How is this soil suitable for dry farming?

Answer

(i) Red soil develops on old crystalline rocks. Under prolonged weathering by rainfall, ancient crystalline and metamorphic rocks of the peninsular plateau break up to form this soil.

(ii) This soil suitable for dry farming as it is formed in areas with poor rainfall.

Question 6(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Black soil is also called lava soil.

(ii) Red soil is red in colour and its colour varies from yellow to brown.

(iii) Jute is cultivated in West Bengal.

Answer

(i) Black soil is also called lava soil because it is formed by the denudation of volcanic rocks.

(ii) Red soil is red in colour as it contains large amounts f iron oxide. At several places, its colour changes and it appears brown or grey. It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form.

(iii) Jute is cultivated in West Bengal because the alluvial soil found in West Bengal is very fertile and supports jute cultivation.

Question 7(a)

What is soil erosion? Name the areas of soil erosion in India-

(i) for wind erosion

(ii) for running water erosion

Answer

The removal of the top soil cover by water, wind and human activities is called soil erosion.

(i) Wind erosion affects the dry areas of Rajasthan, Gujarat and Haryana

(ii) Running water erosion affects the badlands of Chambal and Yamuna river, the piedmont zone of western Himalayas, the Chotanagpur plateau, the Tapi-Sabarmati valley and the regur soil area of Maharashtra.

Question 7(b)

Give two methods used to prevent soil erosion.

Answer

Two methods used to prevent soil erosion are-

  1. Terrace farming
  2. Shelter belts

Question 7(c)

(i) What is meant by soil conservation?

(ii) State two measures to conserve soil in hilly areas.

Answer

(i) Soil conservation means prevention of soil loss from erosion or prevention of reduced fertility of soil caused by over-use, acidification, salinisation or other types of soil contamination.

(ii) Two measures to conserve soil in hilly areas are-

1. Terrace farming- Terraces act as bunds and prevent soil erosion by running water.

2. Contour Ploughing- Ploughing along contours on a slope prevents soil erosion by running water.

Question 7(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Shelter belts reduce soil erosion in arid areas.

(ii) Rural development will influence soil conservation.

(iii) Water harvesting aids in soil conservation.

Answer

(i) Shelter belts reduce soil erosion in arid areas because planting trees in several rows checks wind erosion.

(ii) Rural development will influence soil conservation as in the programmes of rural development, villagers are provided with the techniques of how to improve vegetative cover and the steps required to be taken for preventing soil erosion. The farmers are briefed about the farming methods (such as strip cropping and shelter belts) to be followed to reduce soil erosion.

(iii) Water harvesting aids in soil conservation as it reduces soil erosion and flood hazards by collecting rainwater and reducing the flow of water which causes the removal of fertile top soil.

Question 8(a)

How does deforestation lead to soil erosion?

Answer

Deforestation exposes the soil to water and wind, which leads to soil erosion.

Question 8(b)

State two methods of controlling erosion of soil caused by running water.

Answer

Two methods of controlling erosion of soil caused by running water are construction of dams and plugging gullies.

Question 8(c)

Name two important agents of erosion. For each, state one method of controlling the erosion caused.

Answer

Two important agents of erosion are water and wind. Water erosion can be controlled by the construction of dams. Wind erosion can be controlled by making shelter belts.

Question 8(d)

Explain briefly the need for conservation of soil as a natural resource.

Answer

There is an acute need for conservation of soil as a natural resource because of its adverse effects which include the following-

  1. Loss of fertile topsoil with its mineral content
  2. Lowering of the water table
  3. Drying of vegetation and extension of arid lands leading to an increase in the frequency of drought and floods
  4. Silting of river and canal beds
  5. Recurrence of landslides
  6. Adverse effect on economic prosperity and cultural development

Chapter 9

Natural Vegetation

Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star


Answer the following questions

Question 1(a)

What is meant by natural vegetation?

Answer

Natural vegetation refers to the plant community which has grown naturally without any human assistance and has not been disturbed over a long time, so as to allow its individual species to adjust themselves fully to the climate and soil conditions.

Question 1(b)

Give two points of difference between vegetation and forests.

Answer

Vegetation

Forests

Vegetation refers to the assemblage of plant species living in association with each other in a given environmental set-up.

Forest refers to a large tract of land covered with trees and accompanying undergrowth of shrubs, herbs and sustaining thousands of life forms.

Vegetation includes only plant species.

Forests sustain both plant and animals.

Question 1(c)

(i) Name one area where tropical rain forests are found.

(ii) Mention two main characteristics of tropical rain forests.

Answer

(i) Tropical rain forests are found on the western slopes of the Western Ghats.

(ii) Two main characteristics of tropical rain forests are-

  1. Trees reach great heights of more than 60 m.
  2. Since this region remains warm and wet throughout the year, it has a luxuriant vegetation of all kinds- trees, shrubs and creepers which give it a multi-layered structure.

Question 1(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) The Western Ghats are covered with thick evergreen forests while the Eastern Ghats are coven by deciduous forests.

(ii) Tropical evergreen forests have tall trees and appear green all the year round.

(iii) Deciduous forests are commercially most exploited.

Answer

(i) Evergreen forests are found in areas of high temperature, having high annual rainfall. Western Ghats receive more than 200 cms. of annual rainfall with an average annual temperature between 25°C and 27°C. Similarly, deciduous forests are found in areas with moderate rainfall and the eastern ghats receive annual rainfall between 100 cm and 200 cm with mean annual temperature range of 24°C and 27°C. Hence, the Western Ghats are covered with thick evergreen forests while the Eastern Ghats are coven by deciduous forests.

(ii) Tropical evergreen forests have tall trees as this region remains warm and wet throughout the year. Since the trees do not have a fixed time to shed their leaves, to flower or for fruition, the forest appears green all the year round.

(iii) Deciduous forests are commercially most exploited because besides providing valuable timber, they provide various other valuable products, like sandalwood, which are in great demand in India and abroad.

Question 2(a)

Give two points of difference between Tropical Evergreen and Tropical Deciduous Forests.

Answer

Tropical Evergreen Forests

Tropical Deciduous Forests

Tropical Evergreen forests are found in areas which receive more than 200 cms. of annual rainfall.

Tropical Deciduous Forests are found in areas which receive annual rainfall between 100 cm and 200 cm.

Trees in tropical evergreen forests do not shed their leaves.

Tress in deciduous forests shed their leaves from six to eight weeks during spring and early summer.

Question 2(b)

What are the climatic conditions under which Tropical Evergreen Forests develop?

Answer

The climatic conditions under which Tropical Evergreen Forests develop are-

  1. Annual rainfall of more than 200 cm
  2. Average annual temperature between 25°C and 27°C
  3. Average annual humidity exceeds 77 percent

Question 2(c)

(i) What are the characteristic features of deciduous forests?

(ii) Name the two types of deciduous forests.

Answer

(i) The characteristic features of deciduous forests are-

  1. The trees in these forests shed their leaves from six to eight weeks during spring and early summer.
  2. A particular species can be found over a large area.
  3. They are commercially most exploited.

(ii) The two types of deciduous forests are-

  1. Moist Deciduous Forests
  2. Dry Deciduous Forests

Question 2(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Tropical Evergreen Forests are difficult to exploit for commercial purposes.

(ii) Delta area of river Ganga is called Sunderbans.

(iii) Forests are grown in and around the cities having Iron and Steel Industries, and Thermal Power Plants.

Answer

(i) Tropical Evergreen Forests are difficult to exploit for commercial purposes because of the tangled mass of canes, palms, bamboos, ferns and climbers along with the lack of means of transport.

(ii) Delta area of river Ganga is called Sunderbans because the forests in this area have sundari trees.

(iii) Forests are grown in and around the cities having Iron and Steel Industries, and Thermal Power Plants because the level of pollution is much higher in areas where industries are located and forests prevent pollution and act as a barrier for the dust and purify the air.

Question 3(a)

Mention the areas where Tropical Desert Vegetation thrives.

Answer

Tropical Desert Vegetation thrives in south-western Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, central and eastern Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, parts of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 3(b)

Under what climatic conditions do Littoral forests develop?

Answer

These forests thrive in areas where temperature remains between 26°C to 29°C and the rainfall is not more than 200 cm.

Question 3(c)

(i) State two characteristic features of tropical desert vegetation. Name two typical trees found here.

(ii) Why tropical deserts have stunted trees.

Answer

(i) Two characteristic features of tropical desert vegetation are-

  1. These forests have Xerophytic vegetation. Due to paucity of rainfall, the trees are stunted with large patches of coarse grasses.
  2. Plants remain leafless for most part of the year and look like scrub vegetation.

Two typical trees found here are babool and date palm.

(ii) Tropical deserts have stunted trees due to paucity of rainfall.

Question 3(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) The forest area has greatly depleted in India.

(ii) The Tropical Evergreen forests are found on the western slope of the Western Ghats.

(iii) Acacia has long roots.

Answer

(i) The forest area has greatly depleted in India as forests have been cleared for the purpose of cultivation. Timber has become an important commercial resource. Rapid industrialization, urbanisation and expansion of cities has also led to the destruction of forest cover in the country.

(ii) The Tropical Evergreen forests are found on the western slope of the Western Ghats because evergreen forests are found in areas of high temperature and high annual rainfall. Western Ghats receive more than 200 cms. of annual rainfall with an average annual temperature between 25°C and 27°C.

(iii) Acacia has long roots so that the roots can reach deep, ground water resources and therefore, survive drought like conditions.

Question 4(a)

What are 'Tidal forests'? Name two typical trees found there.

Answer

Tidal forests are one of the most specialised tropical natural vegetation types. India has a variety of wetlands habitats. These lands are between terrestrial and aquatic system where the water table is usually at or near the surface of land.

Two typical trees found here are Keora and Amur.

Question 4(b)

Name the type of forests found in the western part of the Western Ghats. Give two reasons why these forests are so named.

Answer

Tropical Evergreen forests are found in the western part of the Western Ghats. They are named so because they remain green throughout the year as they do not have any particular season to shed their leaves and also because they grow in the regions receiving annual rainfall of more than 200 cm.

Question 4(c)

Describe the methods of protecting forests under the following heads:

(i) Afforestation.

(ii) Using alternative sources of energy.

Answer

(i) Afforestation means planting trees on lands which are not previously covered with forest vegetation.

(ii) To conserve forests, we can use non-conventional or renewable sources of energy like solar energy, tidal energy, hydel energy etc.

Question 4(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Forests constitute an important natural resource.

(ii) Agro forestry is not vulnerable to population stress.

(iii) Tidal forests have profuse growth with tangle of climbers.

Answer

(i) Forests constitute an important natural resource because trees provide us with products such as fruits, leaves, roots and tubers of plants. Wood is used for making furniture and as a source of energy. Wood and bamboo pulp is used to make paper. Forests also provide fibers, essential oils, edible plants etc.

(ii) Agro forestry is not vulnerable to population stress as agro forestry co-ordinates with the local population and reduces the pressure of population on traditional forestry.

(iii) Tidal forests have profuse growth with tangle of climbers to survive in soft and shifting mud.

Question 5(a)

What is social forestry?

Answer

Social forestry refers to the management and protection of orests and afforestation on barren lands with the purpose of helping in the environmental, social and rural development.

Question 5(b)

Give two points of difference between agro-forestry and traditional forestry.

Answer

Agro-forestry

Traditional forestry

Agro forestry provides a combined produce of forest and agricultural crops.

Traditional forestry only provides the produce of forest products.

It is not vulnerable to population stress.

It is vulnerable to population stress.

Question 5(c)

Mention any three methods for the conservation and development of forests in India.

Answer

Three methods for the conservation and development of forests in India are-

  1. Increasing the area under forests
  2. Afforestation around industrial units
  3. Using alternative sources of energy

Question 5(d)

State three objectives of agro-forestry.

Answer

Three objectives of agro-forestry are-

  1. To reduce pressure on natural forests for obtaining timber as well as non-timber forest produce.
  2. To check soil erosion and to maintain the natural fertility of the soil.
  3. To maintain ecological balance along with proper utilisation of farm resources.

Question 6(a)

Why does the vegetation in the Himalayas vary with altitude?

Answer

The vegetation in the Himalayas vary with altitude because in the mountain regions, temperature decreases with altitude.

Question 6(b)

Why does Tropical Evergreen forests appear dark inside the forests.

Answer

Tropical Evergreen forests appear dark inside the forests because of the dense canopy of trees which do not allow enough sunlight to reach the ground.

Question 6(c)

Explain how is man responsible for the reduction of forest cover in India.

Answer

The felling of the trees for the purpose of obtaining timber is an important cause of reduced forest cover in India. Rapid industrialization, urbanisation and expansion of cities has also led to the destruction of forest cover in the country.

Question 6(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Nilgiri region has variety of vegetation type.

(ii) Sundari trees are used for boat making and construction purposes.

(iii) Littoral forest is also called tidal forest.

Answer

(i) In mountain regions, temperature decreases with increase in altitude. This has a corresponding effect on the natural vegetation of the mountain region. Thus, vegetation in lower regions of Nilgiri is sub tropical and vegetation in upper regions of Nilgiri is temperate.

(ii) Sundari trees are used for boat making and construction purposes because these trees provide hard durable timber.

(iii) Littoral forest is also called tidal forest because they are found in tidal zone, an area that is above water at low tide and under water at high tide.

Question 7(a)

Name two areas where Tropical deciduous vegetation is found.

Answer

Tropical deciduous vegetation is found in north-eastern part of the peninsula and along the foothills of the Himalayas.

Question 7(b)

Why do the Coniferous trees of mountain forests have conical shape?

Answer

Since coniferous trees are found in cold regions, they are well adapted to the cold climate. Their leaves are conical in shape so that the snow slides off easily from the branches without causing any damage to them.

Question 7(c)

What is meant by 'farm forestry'? State two of its advantages for farmers.

Answer

Farm forestry is the practice of growing trees on the farm land to produce saleable products like timber, tannin, charcoal, etc. and to provide shade and shelter for stock and crops.
Two advantages of farm forestry are-

  1. It increases farm income.
  2. It supports community development.

Question 7(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Littoral forest vegetation has breathing roots.

(ii) Forests are often compared to human lungs.

(iii) Van Mahotsav is celebrated in our country every year.

Answer

(i) Littoral forest vegetation has breathing roots because these root enable the plants to breathe during the waterlogged conditions which occur when high tide comes.

(ii) Forests are compared to human lungs as the trees which make up a forest act as the compartment of lungs which help in inhalation and exhalation of the air. But in lungs, Oxygen is taken in and Carbon dioxide is given out whereas in trees carbon dioxide is inhaled and oxygen is exhaled.

(iii) Van Mahotsav is celebrated in our country every year to create awareness about the importance of trees and encourage community participation in planting trees.

Chapter 10

Water Resources

Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star


Answer the following questions

Question 1(a)

What do you understand by the term 'water resource'?

Answer

The term 'water resource' refers to any of the entire range of natural waters that occur on the earth and are of potential use to living beings.

Question 1(b)

Give two points of difference between 'surface water' and 'ground water'.

Answer

Surface water

Ground water

Surface water forms streams, lakes, rivers and ponds flowing on land.

The water which seeps through the cracks and crevices under the surface of the land is known as ground water.

It can be used directly without pumping.

It needs to be pumped out of the ground before it can be used.

Question 1(c)

(i) What is meant by rainwater harvesting?

(ii) Mention any two rainwater harvesting systems practised in India.

Answer

(i) Rainwater harvesting is the process of increasing the recharge of groundwater by capturing and storing rainwater locally in sub-surface water reservoirs.

(ii) Two rainwater harvesting systems practised in India are-

  1. Khatri in western Himalayas
  2. Johads in central India

Question 1(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Need to adopt different means of irrigation.

(ii) Need for conserving water.

(iii) Man is responsible for water crisis in India.

Answer

(i) There is a need to adopt different means of irrigation because of uncertainty of rainfall, uneven distribution of rainfall, crop requirements, nature of the soil, effective utilisation of river water and to maximise production.

(ii) There is a need for conserving water for the following reasons-

  1. The over exploitation of ground water often results in the lowering of water table.
  2. The loss of vegetation causes drought and reduction of rainfall and lowering of the water table.
  3. Irrigation utilises more than 90% of the total freshwater.
  4. The increase in population results in water scarcity.
  5. Our water resources are polluted and their water can hardly be used without adequate treatment.

(iii) Man is responsible for water crisis in India because due to increase in population, irrigation and industrialisation, the demand for water has risen. This has led to a decline in groundwater levels in various parts of the country.

Question 2(a)

What is meant by the term irrigation?

Answer

Irrigation refers to the process of watering of agricultural plants through artificial means from wells, tanks, tube wells, canals, etc.

Question 2(b)

What is meant by the term 'water scarcity'? What has caused this scarcity in India?

Answer

Water scarcity is the lack of sufficient available water resources to meet the demands of water usage within a region.

Growing population, over-exploitation and unequal distribution of water among social groups are the main causes of water scarcity in India.

Question 2(c)

(i) What is meant by traditional or conventional methods of irrigation?

(ii) Name any two conventional methods of irrigation.

Answer

(i) Traditional methods of irrigation means to supply water to the plant zone by pumped water from surface or subsurface sources like ponds, rivers, channels or groundwater through earthen channels or pipes with gravitational force.

(ii) Two conventional methods of irrigation are wells and tanks.

Question 2(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Inundation canals are being converted to perennial canals.

(ii) Tank irrigation is preferred over other means of irrigation in Peninsular India.

(iii) Groundwater reserves are depleting at a fast rate.

Answer

(i) Inundation canals are being converted to perennial canals because inundation canals get supply of water only when the rivers are in flood while perennial canals can draw water throughout the year and irrigate large areas.

(ii) Tank irrigation is preferred over other means of irrigation in Peninsular India because-

  1. The rivers of Deccan are mainly dependent on the rainwater.
  2. Many streams become torrential during the rainy season but dry up when the rain ceases.
  3. The hard rocks in the area do not absorb waters, wells cannot be made there.
  4. The terrain is uneven with many natural depressions where tanks can be easily built.

(iii) Groundwater reserves are depleting at a fast rate due to increase in population, irrigation and industrialisation, the demand for water has risen. This has led to a decline in groundwater level in various parts of the country.

Question 3(a)

State any two drawbacks of conventional methods of irrigation.

Answer

Two drawbacks of conventional methods of irrigation are-

  1. A large quantity of water is not properly utilised.
  2. The fields situated in low areas always get excess water causing prolonged water logging.

Question 3(b)

Give two advantages and two disadvantages of well irrigation.

Answer

Two advantages of well irrigation are-

  1. Wells can be dug at a very low cost which is well within the means of poor farmers.
  2. By the use of pumps and tubewells, water can be lifted even from great depths.

Two disadvantages of well irrigation are-

  1. Wells depend on underground water resources whose distribution varies from region to region.
  2. The traditional wells dry up due to over withdrawal of the ground water and lowering of the water table.

Question 3(c)

(i) Name any two states where well irrigation is practised.

(ii) Give one advantage and one disadvantage of tubewell irrigation.

Answer

(i) Two states where well irrigation is practised are Punjab and Uttar Pradesh.

(ii) One advantage of tubewell irrigation is that it brings up clean water.
One disadvantage of tubewell irrigation is that it is useless if the water is brackish.

Question 3(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Well irrigation is confined mainly to the alluvial plains.

(ii) In Tamil Nadu, nearly one-third of the net irrigated area is under canal irrigation.

(iii) Drip irrigation reduces loss of water through evaporation.

Answer

(i) Well irrigation is confined mainly to the alluvial plains as owing to the soft nature of the soil, wells can be easily dug and the yield of crops from the land after irrigation is considerably high.

(ii) In Tamil Nadu, nearly one-third of the net irrigated area is under canal irrigation because Tamil Nadu receives rainfall during the winter season while summer season remains dry. Thus, irrigation is needed in summer to make up the lack of rainfall.

(iii) Drip irrigation reduces loss of water through evaporation as this system consists of perforated pipes that are placed between rows of crops or buried along their root lines and give water directly on to the crops.

Question 4(a)

Name the two types of canals. Name two states where perennial canals are widely used.

Answer

Two types of canals are-

  1. Inundation canals
  2. Perennial canals

Two states where perennial canals are widely used are Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 4(b)

How are the fields irrigated using the Persian wheel method?

Answer

Persian wheel method is a partly submerged vertical wheel with buckets attached to the rim. As the wheel is turned by draught animals rotating a geared horizontal wheel, the buckets are filled and emptied into a trough above, which carries the water to crop-sown fields.

Question 4(c)

(i) Name two states in which tubewells are extensively used.

(ii) State why tubewell irrigation is important in Punjab.

Answer

(i) Two states in which tubewells are extensively used are Punjab and Haryana.

(ii) Tubewell irrigation is important in Punjab because it irrigates large areas of land in comparatively less time and it can irrigate the fields throughout the year.

Question 4(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Canals make the soil infertile.

(ii) Tubewell irrigation is quite expensive.

(iii) Excessive accumulation of salts make the soils unsuitable for cultivation.

Answer

(i) Canals make the soil infertile because in canal irrigation, where water table is a few feet below the ground, the alkaline salts come to the surface, mix with the soil and make it unproductive.

(ii) Tubewell irrigation is quite expensive as it requires continuous supply of electricity.

(iii) Excessive accumulation of salts make the soils unsuitable for cultivation because when salt concentrations in the soil are high, the movement of water from the soil to the root is slowed down. When the salt concentrations in the soil are higher than inside the root cells, the soil will draw water from the root, and the plant will wilt and die. Hence, the soil becomes unsuitable for cultivation.

Question 5(a)

What is meant by rainwater harvesting?

Answer

Rainwater harvesting is the process of increasing the recharge of groundwater by capturing and storing rainwater locally in sub-surface water reservoirs.

Question 5(b)

State any two methods of rainwater harvesting.

Answer

Two methods of rainwater harvesting are-

  1. Khatri in western Himalayas
  2. Johads in central India

Question 5(c)

(i) What is watershed management?

(ii) How is it beneficial for farmers in the long run?

Answer

(i) Watershed management refers to the efficient management and conservation of both the surface and groundwater resources. It includes the prevention of run-off as well as storage and recharge of groundwater by various methods like percolation pits, recharge wells, borewells, dugwells etc.

(ii) Watershed management is beneficial for farmers as it is aimed at conserving both soil and water. Since both soil and water are indispensible for the cultivation of crops, watershed management helps farmers to maximize their crop production and income.

Question 5(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Many farmers in India still use wells.

(ii) There is very little recharge of groundwater.

(iii) The traditional wells dry up.

Answer

(i) Many farmers in India still use wells because wells can be dug at a very low cost and the oxen which are kept for ploughing the land can be utilised for drawing water from the well.

(ii) There is very little recharge of groundwater as only a small amount of rain water runs down the earth surface and gets stored in the form of groundwater. So, only a small percentage of water gets down to the water table and forms ground water.

(iii) The traditional wells dry up due to the over-withdrawal of the groundwater and lowering of the water table.

Question 6(a)

What is 'drip irrigation'? How is it useful?

Answer

Drip irrigation is the most advanced and efficient method of irrigation. This system consists of perforated pipes that are placed between rows of crops or buried along their root lines and give water directly on to the crops.

It is useful as it reduces evaporation drastically and irrigation water is conserved. It also allows the grower to customise an irrigation programme most beneficial to each crop.

Question 6(b)

Explain briefly the need to conserve water.

Answer

We need to conserve water for the following reasons-

  1. The over exploitation of ground water often results in the lowering of water table.
  2. The loss of vegetation causes drought and reduction of rainfall and lowering of the water table.
  3. Irrigation utilises more than 90% of the total freshwater.
  4. The increase in population results in water scarcity.
  5. Our water resources are polluted and their water can hardly be used without adequate treatment.

Question 6(c)

What is meant by furrow irrigation? What is its advantage?

Answer

Furrow irrigation is a type of flood irrigation in which the water poured on the field is directed to flow through narrow channels dug between the rows of crops, instead of evenly distributing the water throughout the whole field. The furrows must have equal dimensions, in order to guarantee that the water is distributed evenly.

The advantage of furrow irrigation is lower initial investment of equipment and lower pumping costs per acre-inch of water pumped.

Question 6(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Modern means of irrigation are gaining popularity.

(ii) Sprinkler irrigation helps in conserving water.

(iii) Spray irrigation is quite expensive.

Answer

(i) Modern means of irrigation are gaining popularity because of the following reasons-

  1. No loss of water due to seepage or evaporation
  2. Conserve water
  3. Prevent soil erosion
  4. Suitable for areas where the rainfall is low
  5. High efficiency

(ii) Sprinkler irrigation helps in conserving water as water is sprayed directly to the required plants so there is no loss of water through seepage or evaporation.

(iii) Spray irrigation is quite expensive because it requires complex machinery.

Chapter 11

Mineral Resources

Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star


Answer the following questions

Question 1(a)

What is a mineral? State two characteristics of minerals.

Answer

Minerals are natural substances of organic or inorganic origin with definite chemical and physical properties.

Two characteristics of minerals are-

  1. Minerals are not evenly distributed over space.
  2. Minerals have inverse relationship in quality and quantity.

Question 1(b)

What is the difference between metallic and non-metallic minerals?

Answer

Metallic minerals

Non-metallic minerals

Metallic minerals are minerals in which metal elements are present in their raw form.

Non-metallic minerals do not contain any metal substances in them.

Metallic minerals are usually found in igneous and metamorphic rock formations.

Non-metallic minerals are often found embedded in young fold mountains and sedimentary rocks.

Metallic minerals are good conductors of electricity as well as heat.

Non-metallic minerals are basically good insulators of electricity and heat.

Metallic minerals have high malleability and ductility.

Non-metallic minerals lack malleability and ductility and these minerals break down easily.

Metallic minerals generally have lustre.

Non-metallic minerals do not have any shine or lustre.

Question 1(c)

Name the three varieties of iron ore mined in India. Name one state where each is found.

Answer

The three varieties of iron ore mined in India are-

1. Haematite — It is found in Odisha.

2. Magnetite — It is found in Tamil Nadu.

3. Limonite — It is found in Uttarakhand.

Question 1(d)

(i) Name the best quality of iron ore.

(ii) Name two states where it is found.

Answer

(i) Magnetite is the best quality of iron ore.

(ii) It is found in Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.

Question 2(a)

What type of mineral is copper? Name any two states where copper is found in India.

Answer

Copper is a non-ferrous metal. It is found in Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Question 2(b)

State two uses of aluminium.

Answer

Aluminium is used in aircrafts and automobiles.

Question 2(c)

Bauxite is an oxide of which metal? Where are the deposits of Bauxite found in India?

Answer

Bauxite is an oxide of aluminium. The deposits of Bauxite are found in Goa, Odisha, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

Question 2(d)

Give a reason for each of the following:

(i) Manganese is an important raw material in the iron and steel industry.

(ii) Bauxite is used in electrical equipment industry.

(iii) Raw iron needs to be alloyed in order to be useful in construction and automobile industry.

Answer

(i) Manganese is an important raw material in the iron and steel industry because it is used to make steel tough and resistant to rusting.

(ii) Bauxite is used in electrical equipment industry because it is a good conductor of electricity.

(iii) Raw iron needs to be alloyed in order to be useful in construction and automobile industry because raw iron by itself is not as strong and hard as needed for construction and automobile industry.

Question 3(a)

How is brass and bronze made? State two uses of copper.

Answer

Copper is alloyed with zinc to form brass and with tin to make bronze.

Two uses of copper are-

  1. It is used in building construction for roofing and plumbing.
  2. It is used in ship-building industry.

Question 3(b)

Name two leading states producing manganese. State two industrial uses of manganese.

Answer

Two leading states producing manganese are Karnataka and Odisha.

Two industrial uses of manganese are-

  1. It is an important raw material for the iron and steel industry.
  2. It is used in chemical industries for manufacturing bleaching powder.

Question 3(c)

(i) Name two characteristics of iron ore deposits in India that facilitate their optimum use in the iron and steel plants.

(ii) Name two industries that require iron ore as raw material.

Answer

(i) Two characteristics of iron ore deposits in India that facilitate their optimum use in the iron and steel plants are-

  1. Iron ore deposits occur as hill masses and are easily accessible.
  2. They are found in close proximity to the areas producing coal, dolomite, limestone and manganese.

(ii) Two industries that require iron ore as raw material are iron and steel industries.

Question 3(d)

Give a reason for each of the following:

(i) Magnetite is so called.

(ii) Copper is used for making electric wires.

(iii) Aluminium is used for making aircraft.

Answer

(i) Magnetite is so called because it possesses magnetic property.

(ii) Copper is used for making electric wires because it is a good conductor of electricity, highly malleable and ductile.

(iii) Aluminium is used for making aircraft because it is light weight and strong.

Chapter 12

Conventional Sources of Energy

Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star


Answer the following questions

Question 1(a)

What is meant by conventional sources of energy? Name any two conventional sources of energy.

Answer

Conventional sources of energy are those which have been used by man for a long time and are still being tapped and used abundantly.

These include coal, petroleum, natural gas and hydel power.

Question 1(b)

Name two main coal bearing areas in India.

Answer

Two main coal bearing areas in India are Raniganj in West Bengal and Jharia in Jharkhand.

Question 1(c)

(i) Name the varieties of coal found in India.

(ii) Give a characteristic of each type of coal.

Answer

(i) The varieties of coal found in India are anthracite, bituminous, lignite and peat.

(ii) Characteristic of each type of coal are:

  1. Anthracite coal — It is shiny and lustrous, almost jet black.
  2. Bituminous coal — It is hard, black and compact and makes up almost 80% of the world's total coal output.
  3. Lignite coal — It comprises 40% of carbon and a good deal of moisture and less of combustible matter.
  4. Peat coal — It has the least carbon content and is inferior to the other three varieties of coal.

Question 1(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Anthracite is used for domestic purposes.

(ii) Oil refineries are located close to oilfields or near ports.

(iii) The location of coalfields is an important factor in industrial development.

Answer

(i) Anthracite is used for domestic purposes as it is a smokeless fuel with high calorific value.

(ii) Oil refineries are located close to oilfields or near ports to minimise the cost of transport and to avoid the risk of transporting the oil inside the country due to its inflammable nature.

(iii) Location of coal fields is an important factor in industrial development because it is the basic source of power and it is heavy and bulky also, hence difficult to transport.

Question 2(a)

How is Gondwana coalfield different from tertiary coalfield in terms of location and quality?

Answer

Gondwana Coalfields

Tertiary Coalfields

Gondwana coalfields are largely confined to river valleys like those of Damodar, Mahanadi and Godavari. These coalfields are located in the states of West Bengal, Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

Tertiary coalfields are found in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Kashmir and in the coastal areas of Tamil Nadu, Gujarat and inland basin of Rajasthan.

This coal is free from moisture and contains sulphur and phosphorus in small variable quantities.

This coal has a higher moisture content and more sulphur, with less calorific value.

Question 2(b)

Name the coalfield that is oldest and one that is largest in India.

Answer

The oldest coalfield in India is in Raniganj in West Bengal and the largest coalfield is in Jharia in Jharkhand.

Question 2(c)

(i) State two advantages of coal as a source of power.

(ii) Where is the oldest oilfield located in India?

Answer

(i) Two advantages of coal as a source of power are-

  1. Energy produced from coal fired plants is cheaper and more affordable than other energy sources.
  2. Coal is easy to burn and produces high energy upon combustion.

(ii) The oldest oilfield in India is Digboi oilfield situated in Tinsukhia district of Assam.

Question 2(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Petroleum is called 'liquid gold'.

(ii) Natural gas is a fossil fuel.

(iii) CNG is an eco-friendly fuel.

Answer

(i) Petroleum is called 'liquid gold' because there is not even a tiniest part of crude petroleum which goes to waste or remains unused.

(ii) Natural gas is a fossil fuel because it has been formed by decomposing remains of dead animals and plants buried under the earth.

(iii) CNG is an eco-friendly fuel because it causes less damage to the environment as it is made up of methane and results in less carbon emissions.

Question 3(a)

What is Natural Gas? Name two variants of natural gas.

Answer

Natural gas is a fossil fuel which occurs in association with mineral oil. It is mainly composed of methane with small amounts of propane and ethane.

Two variants of natural gas are-

  1. Compressed Natural Gas
  2. Liquified Natural Gas

Question 3(b)

Where is natural gas found in India? Name two coastal and two inland oil-refineries in India.

Answer

Over three-fourths of India's natural gas comes from Mumbai High. The rest is produced in Assam, Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan and Tripura.

Two coastal oil-refineries in India are-

  1. Haldia refinery – Indian Oil Corporation Limited in Haldia, West Bengal
  2. Visakhapatnam Refinery – Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh

Two inland oil-refineries in India are-

  1. Bina Refinery – Bharat Oman Refineries Limited in Bina, Madhya Pradesh.
  2. Panipat Refinery – Indian Oil Corporation Limited in Panipat, Haryana.

Question 3(c)

(i) Why do the natural gas deposits mostly accompany oil deposits?

(ii) What is added to domestic gas cylinders, which gives a foul smell? Why?

Answer

(i) Natural gas deposits mostly accompany oil deposits because it has been formed by decomposing remains of dead animals and plants buried under the earth.

(ii) Ethyl mercaptan, a foul smelling gas is added to domestic gas cylinders, so that any leakage of LPG from the cylinder can be detected instantaneously.

Question 3(d)

Give two advantages and one disadvantage of natural gas.

Answer

Two advantages of natural gas are-

  1. It is a cleaner, cheaper fuel than diesel or gasoline.
  2. Natural gas is an eco-friendly fuel.

One disadvantage of natural gas is that leaks of natural gas are difficult to detect and are very dangerous.

Question 4(a)

Name one important area that has large coal deposits in:

(i) Jharkhand

(ii) West Bengal

Answer

(i) Jharia has large coal deposits in Jharkhand.

(ii) Raniganj has large coal deposits in West Bengal.

Question 4(b)

State any one disadvantage of coal found in India.

Answer

One disadvantage of coal found in India is that its calorific value is low.

Question 4(c)

(i) Name two states that have deposits of the Gondwana coal.

(ii) Name two industries that use large quantity of coal.

Answer

(i) Jharkhand and Odisha have deposits of the Gondwana coal.

(ii) Two industries that use large quantity of coal are-

  1. Iron and Steel industries
  2. Thermal energy power plants

Question 4(d)

(i) Which state is the largest producer of mineral oil?

(ii) Mention any two advantages of hydel power.

Answer

(i) Assam is the largest producer of mineral oil.

(ii) Two advantages of hydel power are-

  1. Hydel power is clean, non-polluting source of energy.
  2. It does not produce any Greenhouse gases and prevents global warming.

Question 5(a)

Why does India have to import oil?

Answer

India has to import oil to meet the ever increasing industrial and domestic demands.

Question 5(b)

Name one refinery which belongs to the private sector and one in the public sector.

Answer

Jamnagar refinery in Gujarat belongs to the private sector and Guwahati Refinery in Assam is a public sector refinery.

Question 5(c)

Name the two coastal oil-refineries, one on the west coast of India and the other on the east coast of India. Name one inland oil refinery. List the sources of crude oil for these refineries.

Answer

Below are the oil-refineries along with their location and source of crude oil:

  1. Oil refinery — Trombay refinery in Maharashtra
    Location — West coast of India
    Source of crude oil — Ankleshwar fields
  2. Oil refinery — Visakhapatnam Refinery in Andhra Pradesh
    Location — East coast of India
    Source of crude oil — Tatipaka field
  3. Oil refinery — Mathura refinery in Uttar Pradesh
    Location — Inland oil refinery
    Source of crude oil — Mumbai High

Question 5(d)

Where are the deposits of Petroleum normally located? Give two uses of Petroleum besides being used as a fuel.

Answer

Petroleum is normally found in underground reservoirs in sedimentary rock formations like sandstone, shale and limestone. The entire production of India comes from the Assam-Arakan belt, the Gujarat-Cambay belt and the Mumbai High offshore zone.

Two uses of Petroleum besides being used as a fuel are-

  1. Petroleum after refining is used as raw material for the production of various petrochemical products like synthetic rubber, synthetic fibre, polysterene, PVC, phenol, gasoline etc.
  2. It is used for power generation.

Question 6(a)

Name four products that are obtained during the refining process of petroleum.

Answer

Four products that are obtained during the refining process of petroleum are-

  1. Petrol
  2. Diesel
  3. Kerosene
  4. Tar

Question 6(b)

State any two advantages of using petroleum as a source of power.

Answer

Two advantages of using petroleum as a source of power are-

  1. It is a stable energy source.
  2. It is a high density fuel.

Question 6(c)

State any three disadvantages of using petroleum.

Answer

Three disadvantages of using petroleum are-

  1. Petroleum is a natural fossil fuel and non-renewable.
  2. Extracting and burning petroleum generates greenhouse gases that contribute to global warming and environmental pollution.
  3. It is expensive because of its limited supply and high demand.

Question 6(d)

State any three disadvantages of hydel power.

Answer

Three disadvantages of hydel power are-

  1. The cost of building dams for producing hydroelectricity is quite high.
  2. Building a large dam alters the natural water table level.
  3. Building dams displaces many people from the area and disturbs their life physically, mentally and psychologically.

Question 7(a)

Where is Mumbai High? What is Sagar Samrat?

Answer

In Maharashtra, about 176 km off Mumbai in the Arabian Sea, there is a huge oil deposit known as Mumbai High.

The syncline of the rock structure in which oil has been struck is higher than the normal height and oil is taken from the depth of over 1,400 m with the help of a specially designed platform known as 'Sagar Samrat'. It is a self propelled jack-up type of drilling platform.

Question 7(b)

Why is coal often used near the source of its mining whereas mineral oil is transported to great distances?

Answer

Coal is a bulky material and its transportation is difficult and costly. Secondly, coal is not a hard but a soft mineral. If not transported in a proper way, it may get crushed and reduced to ash. This results in reduction of the weight of coal. Hence it is used near the source of mining.

Oil is transported to greater distances through pipelines which is a cheaper and easier means of transport.

Question 7(c)

Name the region in which India's main coalfields are located. What is the quality of coal found here? What are its uses?

Answer

The Gondwana coalfields are the largest in India as it accounts for 98% of the total reserves of coal in India. Gondwana coal fields are located in the states of West Bengal, Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh. These coal fields accounts for four-fifth of India's coal reserves.

Gondwana coal is mainly of bituminous quality. It is almost free from moisture and contains sulphur and phosphorus in small variable quantities.

Gondwana coal is used to produce coke, coal gas and steam coal.

Question 7(d)

State three advantages of dams.

Answer

Three advantages of dams are-

  1. Dams built to produce hydroelectricity help to save and restore water.
  2. Dams provide water for irrigation.
  3. Dams prevent flooding.

Question 8(a)

What is meant by hydel power?

Answer

Electricity generated from water is called hydel power.

Question 8(b)

With reference to the Bhakra Nangal Dam, answer the following:

(i) Name the river on which it has been constructed.

(ii) Name two states that benefit from this project.

Answer

(i) Bhakra Nangal dam has been constructed on the river Sutlej.

(ii) Punjab and Himachal Pradesh benefit from this project.

Question 8(c)

(i) On which river is Hirakud Dam located?

(ii) Give any two uses of this dam.

Answer

(i) Hirakud dam is built across Mahanadi river.

(ii) Two uses of this dam are-

  1. It regulates the flow of the Mahanadi river and produces hydroelectricity through several hydroelectric plants.
  2. The dam helps control floods in the mahanadi delta and irrigates 75,000 sq km of land.

Question 8(d)

State three disadvantages of building a big dam.

Answer

Three disadvantages of building a big dam are-

  1. The cost of building dams for producing hydroelectricity is quite high.
  2. Building a large dam alters the natural water table level.
  3. It can cause serious geological damage like triggering earthquakes in the area.

Chapter 13

Non-Conventional Sources of Energy

Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star


Answer the following questions

Question 1(a)

What are non-conventional sources of energy?

Answer

Non-Conventional sources of energy are those which have been developed in the recent past as an alternative to conventional sources of energy. These include solar energy, wind energy, tidal energy, geothermal energy, nuclear energy and biogas.

Question 1(b)

State two differences between conventional and non-conventional sources of energy.

Answer

Conventional sources of energy

Non-Conventional sources of energy

Conventional sources of energy are those which have been used by man for a long time and are still being tapped and used abundantly.

Non-conventional sources of energy are those which have been developed in the recent past as an alternative to conventional sources of energy.

Except for hydel energy, these sources of energy are non-renewable.

Most of these sources are renewable.

Question 1(c)

How is India in an advantageous position to harness solar energy?

Answer

India is in an advantageous position to harness solar energy because of India's location on the Tropic of Cancer. Most parts of the country have 300 clear sunny days in a year and per hour per square km availability of solar energy between 5 to 7 kW.

Question 1(d)

Give a reason for each of the following:

(i) Non-conventional sources of energy are called the resources of the future.

(ii) India is an advantageous position in terms of solar energy.

(iii) Harvesting of solar energy does not require much maintenance.

Answer

(i) Non-conventional sources of energy are called the resources of the future as most of these sources of energy are renewable, non-polluting, less expensive to run and easy to maintain.

(ii) India in an advantageous position to harness solar energy because of India's location on the Tropic of Cancer. Most parts of the country have 300 clear sunny days in a year and per hour per square km availability of solar energy between 5 to 7 kW.

(iii) Harvesting of solar energy does not require much maintenance as most reliable solar panel manufacturers give 20-25 years warranty. Also, as there are no moving parts, there is no wear and tear. So, after covering the initial cost of the solar energy system, it requires very little spending on maintenance and repair work.

Question 2(a)

State briefly how the Sun's energy can be used to generate power.

Answer

Sun's energy can be transformed into electrical energy with the help of solar cells. Solar cells are also known as photovoltaic cells. They are made up of thin wafers of semi conductor materials from silicon and gallium. When Sun's light falls on them, the Sun's energy gets converted into electricity.

Question 2(b)

Wind energy can generate additional income for the land owners.

Answer

Land owners can look for additional income by installing wind turbines on land that can even be used for agricultural purposes. The electricity generated by wind power can be used for domestic consumption and reduce monthly electricity bills, and the surplus power can be sold back to the local grid which can result in more savings. Hence, wind energy can generate additional income for the land owners.

Question 2(c)

State any three advantages of using solar energy.

Answer

Three advantages of using solar energy are-

  1. It is a renewable source of energy which can be harnessed in most of the areas of the world.
  2. It can be used for diverse purposes like producing electricity in areas without access to the energy grid, to distill water in regions with limited clean water supplies and to power satellites in space.
  3. Solar energy systems do not require a lot of maintenance.

Question 2(d)

How is wind energy utilised to produce electricity?

Answer

The wind energy is obtained by making use of windmills. The blades of the windmill rotate due to the force of the wind. The rotational motion of the blades drives a number of machines like water pumps, flour mills and electric generators. A number of windmills are installed in a definite pattern in clusters called wind farms. They generate a large amount of electricity.

Question 3(a)

What is tidal energy? Give an advantage of using tidal energy.

Answer

The rise and fall of water of the ocean produced by the attraction of the Moon and Sun produces a large amount of energy called Tidal energy.

An advantage of Tidal energy is that it can be produced even if the water moves at a low speed.

Question 3(b)

Give two advantages of using wind energy.

Answer

Two advantages of using wind energy are-

  1. It is a renewable source of energy that can be produced again and again.
  2. It is the cleanest form of renewable energy that produces no pollution.

Question 3(c)

What are wind farms? Where are they usually located?

Answer

A number of windmills are installed in a definite pattern in clusters called wind farms.

They are usually installed in coastal regions, open grasslands or hilly regions.

Question 3(d)

(i) What is geothermal energy?

(ii) How is geothermal energy used to produce electricity?

Answer

(i) Geothermal energy is the heat energy contained in the rock and fluid that fills the fractures and pores within the rock in the earth's crust.

(ii) Resources of geothermal energy can be generated by using the shallow steam, hot water and hot rock by drilling wells up to thousands of feet beneath the earth's surface. The extremely high temperatures in the deeper geothermal reservoirs are used for the generation of electricity. The high-pressure steam spins the turbine that rotates a generator and produces electricity.

Hot water is pumped from deep underground through a well under high pressure. When the water reaches the surface, the pressure is dropped, which causes the water to turn into steam. The steam spins the turbine, which is connected to a generator that produces electricity. The steam cools off in the cooling tower and condenses back to water. The cooled water is pumped back into the earth to begin the process again.

Question 4(a)

Name one area each where solar, wind, tidal and geothermal energy is generated in India.

Answer

Energy

Area

Solar energy

Bhadla Solar Park, Jodhpur, Rajasthan

Wind energy

Madurai in Tamil Nadu

Tidal energy

Gulf of Kutch

Geothermal energy

Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh

Question 4(b)

State any two advantages of using geothermal energy.

Answer

Two advantages of using geothermal energy are-

  1. It is easily accessible because of its extensive distribution.
  2. It is independent of weather and season.

Question 4(c)

Name the process involved in generation of nuclear energy. State any three advantages of using nuclear power.

Answer

Process involved in generation of nuclear energy

When atoms of radioactive substances react, they split apart. This process is known as nuclear fission.

Nuclear fission produces heat, and this heat is used to heat water and make steam. The steam powers turbines which in turn are used to run generators which produce electricity.

Two main types of nuclear reactors used to generate electricity are-

  1. Pressurised water reactor — The water is heated by the nuclear reaction, but it does not boil because the water is pressurised. The heated water is circulated through the tubes in steam generators allowing the water in the steam generator to turn to steam, which then turns the turbine.
  2. Boiling water reactor — In this, the water comes to a boil due to the heat produced by the nuclear reaction and turns into steam to turn the turbine. The water from the reactor powers the turbine.

Three advantages of using nuclear power are-

  1. Nuclear energy reduces the requirement of the amount of energy generated from fossil fuels and therefore, reduces the use of fossil fuels and lowers Greenhouse Gas emissions.
  2. Fission of one atom of uranium produces ten million times the energy released by burning of one atom of carbon. In this way, nuclear energy not only saves on raw materials but also in transport, handling and extraction of nuclear fuel. The cost of nuclear fuel is 20% of the cost of energy generated.
  3. Nuclear energy is the most reliable source of energy as nuclear power plants can run 24 hours a day and seven days a week.

Question 4(d)

How is biogas beneficial for the farmers and householders?

Answer

Biogas is beneficial for the farmers in the form of energy and good quality manure. It is useful for the householders as the gas is used for cooking, lighting and pumping water from wells.

Question 5(a)

What is nuclear power?

Answer

Nuclear power is obtained from energy stored in the nuclei of atoms of naturally occurring radioactive elements like uranium, thorium and plutonium.

Question 5(b)

Name two minerals used for the generation of nuclear energy. Name two nuclear power plants in India.

Answer

Uranium and Thorium are the two minerals used for the generation of nuclear energy.

Two nuclear power plants in India are-

  1. Kaiga in Karnataka
  2. Kakrapar in Gujarat

Question 5(c)

What is biogas? How is biogas produced?

Answer

Biogas is composed of methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide.

Biogas is produced by anaerobic degradation of animal and plant wastes in the presence of water. Anaerobic degradation means breaking down of organic matter by bacteria in the absence of oxygen. The fermentation of the waste products is carried out by bacteria, which produces hydrocarbon gas, predominantly methane and alcohol. The residue left behind in the tank is rich in nutrients and can be used as manure.

Question 5(d)

Explain how using nuclear energy in a controlled environment can be a boon for our country.

Answer

Using nuclear energy in a controlled environment can be a boon for our country for the following reasons-

  1. Nuclear energy reduces the requirement of the amount of energy generated from fossil fuels and therefore, reduces the use of fossil fuels and lowers Greenhouse Gas emissions.
  2. Fission of one atom of uranium produces ten million times the energy released by burning of one atom of carbon. In this way, nuclear energy not only saves on raw materials but also in transport, handling and extraction of nuclear fuel. The cost of nuclear fuel is 20% of the cost of energy generated.
  3. Nuclear energy is the most reliable source of energy as nuclear power plants can run 24 hours a day and seven days a week. Besides, a nuclear plant needs to refuel every 18 to 24 months. This shows that nuclear fuels are less affected by fluctuating fuel prices than the more volatile industries like oil and natural gas.
  4. When compared to the fossil fuel waste, the nuclear waste which occurs due to the production of nuclear power is small in quantity.

Chapter 14

Agriculture — I

Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star


Answer the following questions

Question 1(a)

What is meant by the term 'agriculture'?

Answer

Agriculture is defined as the cultivation of the soil in order to grow crops and rear livestock.

Question 1(b)

Why is agriculture said to be the backbone of the Indian economy?

Answer

Agriculture is said to be the backbone of the Indian economy as India is primarily an agricultural country as two-thirds of its population depends on agriculture. According to the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, agriculture and allied sector accounts for-

  1. 16.5% of India's Gross Value Added
  2. 17.32% of its Gross Domestic Produce
  3. 13% share of total value of export
  4. Employment to 58% of labour force either directly or indirectly

Question 1(c)

Mention any three problems of agriculture in India.

Answer

Three problems of agriculture in India are-

  1. Indian agriculture is dependent to a large extent on the monsoons, which are uncertain, irregular and unequally distributed.
  2. Old and inefficient methods and techniques of farming, inadequate irrigation facilities and inability of the farmers to purchase good quality seed and modern equipment because of paucity of funds and lack of latest know-how and inputs.
  3. Soil erosion is not only a major cause for decreasing soil fertility but also results in loss of valuable crop land.

Question 1(d)

State three advantages of cooperative farming.

Answer

Three advantages of cooperative farming are-

  1. It allows small farmers to pool together their resources and buy inputs at bulk rates and increase volume of products to open new markets.
  2. It enables producers to negotiate for better prices, diffuse risks and share knowledge, skills and labour.
  3. It improves the quality of life of member-farmers. It enables them to arrange time off, take care of children and get help in the form of extra hands when needed. Shared responsibilities, whole selling, producing or maintaining shared resources, lightens the work load of the farmers.

Question 2(a)

What is meant by Green Revolution?

Answer

Green revolution is regarded as the greatest revolution in the country which helped to transform the economy from food scarcity to food self-sufficiency.

It is a term used for describing the manifold increase in India's farm production and productivity, particularly in the case of major cereal crops like wheat consequent to the adoption of the 'New Agricultural Strategy' since the late-sixties.

Question 2(b)

State any two characteristics of Green Revolution.

Answer

Two characteristics of Green Revolution are-

  1. Use of large capital and technological inputs
  2. Adoption of modern scientific methods of farming

Question 2(c)

State any three negative impact of Green Revolution in India.

Answer

Three negative impact of Green Revolution in India are-

  1. Land degradation due to overuse of fertilizers and pesticides
  2. Drying aquifers
  3. Vanishing biodiversity

Question 2(d)

What was the impact of Green Revolution on Indian agriculture?

Answer

Green Revolution had the following impact on Indian agriculture -

  1. It enabled Indian agriculture to change from subsistence to commercial and market-oriented.
  2. It led to the development of intensive agricultural production system that increased production and paved the way for self-sufficiency in respect of food grains.
  3. The adoption of new technology under Green Revolution created more employment opportunities in agriculture sector.
  4. It enabled the farmers to obtain increasing returns from agriculture by greater utilisation of agricultural inputs.
  5. It increased rural prosperity.

Question 3(a)

Give two points of difference between Extensive and Intensive farming.

Answer

Extensive farming

Intensive farming

Farms are huge in size.

Farms are small in size.

It is highly capital intensive.

It is labour intensive system.

Question 3(b)

State any two advantages of Commercial farming.

Answer

Two advantages of commercial farming are-

  1. It increases the yield rate of crops.
  2. By utilizing high-end machinery for cultivating the lands, it takes less time to perform the agricultural operations.

Question 3(c)

(i) What type of farming is practised in areas where population is sparse and land is in plenty?

(ii) Name two areas in India where such type of farming is practised.

Answer

(i) Extensive farming is practised in areas where population is sparse and land is in plenty.

(ii) Extensive farming is practised in Punjab and Haryana.

Question 3(d)

Give a reason for each of the following:

(i) Plantations are managed by large multinational companies.

(ii) Fields are rotated instead of crops in shifting cultivation.

(iii) In extensive agriculture, yield per hectare is low but total yield is large.

Answer

(i) Plantations are managed by large multinational companies because plantation crops are grown on large farms which are modern, scientific and self-contained units. Only one crop is grown on a large-scale. Enormous capital investment is required to set up a plantation and a large number of labourers are employed. Hence, only multinational companies can manage such large scale plantations.

(ii) Crops are not rotated in shifting agriculture because the people who practice shifting agriculture have become habitual of consuming specific crops. Hence, when the fertility of the current field is lost, they shift to another field instead of changing their crops.

(iii) In extensive agriculture, yield per hectare is low but total yield is large because it is practised in areas with large land holdings, using less labour and less chemical fertilizers and pesticides.

Question 4(a)

Give two points of difference between plantation and mixed farming.

Answer

Plantation farming

Mixed farming

Only one crop is cultivated using modern scientific methods.

Two or more crops are grown together.

Only crops are cultivated.

Crops and animals are raised simultaneously.

Question 4(b)

Give any two effects of globalisation on Indian agriculture.

Answer

Two effects of globalisation on Indian agriculture are-

  1. Farmers have started adopting modern techniques of farming.
  2. Establishment of food processing industries has increased employment.

Question 4(c)

Mention any three measures taken by the government to boost agricultural production.

Answer

Three measures taken by the government to boost agricultural production are-

  1. Various land reforms have been introduced. Zamindari and all intermediaries have been completely abolished.
  2. Creation of irrigation infrastructure and its optimum utilisation has been given greater importance.
  3. The Government of India provides subsidy on fertilizers to ensure adequate availability of fertilizers to farmers at reasonable rates.

Question 4(d)

Agriculture in India is a gamble on the monsoon. Explain.

Answer

Indian agriculture is dependent to a large extent on the monsoons, which are uncertain, irregular and unequally distributed. Nearly 55% of the net sown area continues to depend on rainfall rather than irrigation. Hence, agriculture in India is a gamble on the monsoon.

Question 5(a)

How is shifting cultivation carried out?

Answer

In shifting cultivation, a patch of land is cleared by cutting and burning of the stumps. The ash is spread on the field as manure. After the land is cleared of trees, seed are sown in the ground and the land is cultivated. Neither ploughing of the soil nor any other agricultural practices are followed in this type of agriculture.

After 2-3 years, when the fertility of the soil is lost, the fields are abandoned and allowed to regain its fertility. The farmers move to a fresh piece of land and the same process is repeated.

Question 5(b)

Where is shifting cultivation practised in India? State any one disadvantage of shifting cultivation.

Answer

Shifting cultivation is practised in Assam, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Himalayan region, Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh.

The disadvantage of shifting cultivation is that it accelerates soil erosion and causes floods and silting in the lower reaches of the riverine flood plains.

Question 5(c)

State any two steps being taken by the government to discourage shifting cultivation.

Answer

Two steps being taken by the government to discourage shifting cultivation are-

  1. The Government is promoting Intercropping as an alternative to shifting cultivation.
  2. The Government is promoting large scale plantations of fast growing timber varieties to help in restoration of land and creation of wealth for the land owners.

Question 5(d)

What is subsistence farming? Mention two features of subsistence farming.

Answer

Subsistence farming is characterised by small and scattered land holdings and use of primitive tools, like hoe and digging sticks by family members. As the farmers are poor, they do not use fertilizers and high yielding variety of seeds in their fields.

Facilities like irrigation and electricity are generally not available to them. These factors result in low productivity. Most of the food production is consumed by the farmers and their families.

Two features of subsistence farming are-

  1. Land holdings are small and scattered.
  2. The farmers use traditional methods of agriculture.

Question 6(a)

What is Organic farming?

Answer

Organic farming is a unique production management system which promotes and enhances agro-ecosystem health, including biodiversity, biological cycles and soil biological activity, and this is accomplished by using on-farm agronomic, biological and mechanical methods in exclusion of all synthetic off-farm inputs.

Question 6(b)

What is Cooperative farming?

Answer

Cooperative farming refers to an organisation of farmers where farmers pool their resources in certain areas of activity. Each member farmer owns his land individually but carries out all the farming activities jointly with other farmer members. But profit is distributed in the ration of land owned by each member farmer.

Question 6(c)

What are the main characteristics of organic farming?

Answer

The main characteristics of organic farming are-

  1. It protects the long term fertility of the soil by maintaining organic matter levels, and creating optimised conditions for biological activity within the soil.
  2. It provides crop nutrients indirectly using relatively insoluble nutrient sources which are made available to the plant by the action of soil micro-organisms.
  3. It maintains nitrogen self sufficiency through the use of legumes and biological nitrogen fixation as well as effective recycling of organic materials including crop residues and livestock manures.
  4. It prevents weeds, diseases and pests by relying primarily on crop rotations, natural predators diversity, organic manuring, resistant varieties and limited thermal, biological and chemical intervention.
  5. It provides attentive care and management of livestock, paying full regard to their evolutionary adaptations, behavioral needs and animal welfare issues with respect to nutrition, housing, health, breeding and rearing.

Question 6(d)

State why is organic farming gaining popularity in recent times.

Answer

Organic farming is gaining popularity in recent times because people have become aware of their benefits. They contain no chemical pesticides and fertilizers and are grown naturally with manure or compost and only natural pesticides and insecticides are used.

Children are more susceptible than adults to diseases caused by chemical pesticide residues in food and so parents prefer to give them organic foods. Another advantage is that organic foods do not contain growth hormones or antibiotic residues. Animals are often given growth hormones and antibiotics in animal feeds which are directly passed into animal foods like meat, poultry, fish, eggs, and dairy products and from foods to the consumers. In organic farming these practices are banned and animals feed outside in natural surroundings.

Chapter 15

Agriculture — II: Food Crops

Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star


Answer the following questions

Question 1(a)

Name the three cropping seasons in India.

Answer

The three cropping seasons in India are-

  1. Kharif
  2. Rabi
  3. Zaid

Question 1(b)

Which is the most important method of rice cultivation in India? Why?

Answer

Japanese method of rice cultivation is highly adapted in India because the method includes the use of high yielding varieties of seeds called Japonica. Initial raising of the seedling is done in the nursery and is protected from initial infections and then transferred to fields and planted in rows to make weeding easy.

This method ensures higher yield.

Question 1(c)

Name the two states where rice is grown as a cash crop. Why?

Answer

In Punjab and West Bengal, the farmers cultivate rice as a cash or commercial crop. Rice is grown in almost all states of India except Gujarat and Rajasthan. Rice can feed more people compared to same amount of any other food grains.

Question 1(d)

Give three points of difference between upland and lowland rice.

Answer

Upland rice

Lowland rice

It is grown on mountainous regions.

It is grown in low-lying areas.

It is sown in March-April and harvested in September-October.

It is sown in June and harvested in October.

The entire crop is used locally.

The produce of rice is used for local consumption as well as supplied to other regions.

Question 2(a)

Why are cereals referred to as 'staff of life'?

Answer

Cereals are referred to as 'staff of life' because of their simple form of cultivation and their high nutritional value. They have formed the basic diet of mankind.

Question 2(b)

State two geographical conditions suitable for the cultivation of rice?

Answer

Two geographical conditions suitable for the cultivation of rice are-

  1. Rice grows best in warm and humid areas. The critical mean temperature for flowering and fertilisation ranges from 16°C to 20°C whereas during ripening, the range is from 18°C to 32°C.
  2. Rice requires good rainfall in the range of 150 to 300 cm.

Question 2(c)

(i) Name the state that produces the highest quantity of rice in India.

(ii) State two advantages of growing rice on lowlands.

Answer

(i) West Bengal produces the highest quantity of rice in India.

(ii) Two advantages of growing rice on lowlands are-

  1. It is easy to irrigate rice crop and water can be easily accumulated on low lands.
  2. Soil in the lowlands is more fertile as compared to uplands.

Question 2(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Wheat cultivation is confined to the northern parts of the country.

(ii) Punjab is the leading producer of wheat in India.

(iii) Government of India is encouraging cultivation of pulses.

Answer

(i) Wheat cultivation is confined to the northern parts of the country because it grows best in cool, moist climate and ripens in warm, dry climate. Also, the winter rain occurring in northern India is beneficial for the crop.

(ii) Punjab is the leading producer of wheat in India because the climate of Punjab is well suited for the cultivation of wheat. During winters, the temperature of the region remains between 10°C to 25°C. Punjab also receives light showers during the winter months from the western disturbances. Such a climate is suited for wheat cultivation.

(iii) Government of India is encouraging cultivation of pulses because pulses being leguminous crops, fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil and increase the natural fertility of soil. Also, pulses form an important part of the Indian diet, especially for those who consume starchy vegetation.

Question 3(a)

What kind of soil is needed for the cultivation of wheat?

Answer

Wheat grows best in well drained loams and clay loams.

Question 3(b)

State two geographical conditions necessary for the growth of wheat in India.

Answer

Two geographical conditions necessary for the growth of wheat in India are-

  1. For the cultivation of wheat, temperature in the range of 10-15°C is suitable for sowing and 20-25°C during harvest.
  2. About 80 cm of annual rainfall is ideal for wheat cultivation.

Question 3(c)

(i) Name two states that grow wheat extensively.

(ii) What climatic features have helped these states in this respect?

Answer

(i) Punjab and Uttar Pradesh grow wheat extensively.

(ii) Climatic features that have helped these states in this respect are-

  1. Cool and moist climate for sowing and warm, dry climate for ripening. Ideal temperature ranges from 10-15°C at the time of sowing and 20-25°C during harvesting.
  2. Annual rainfall of about 80 cm. Winter rain caused due to western disturbances are beneficial for the crop.

Question 3(d)

Give three differences between the climatic conditions needed for wheat and rice cultivation.

Answer

Climatic Conditions

Wheat

Rice

Temperature during sowing

10 to 15°C

16-20°C

Temperature during ripening/harvest

20-25°C

18-32°C

Rainfall

About 80 cm

About 150 - 300 cm

Question 4(a)

What is meant by "transplantation"? State two of its advantages.

Answer

Transplantation is a method of rice cultivation common in deltaic and flood plain regions. The seedlings are first grown in nurseries and after four to five weeks when saplings attain 25-30 cm of height, they are transplanted into prepared rice fields in groups of four to six at a distance of 30-45 cm. In the beginning, the field is flooded with a 2-3 cm deep water. Subsequently, the depth of water level is increased to 4-6 cm till the crop matures.

Two advantages of transplantation method are-

  1. Only the healthy plants are picked for resowing in the field and unhealthy plants are discarded.
  2. Weeds are removed while resowing.

Question 4(b)

How does the cultivation of pulses usually help in restoration of fertility of the soil?

Answer

Pulses being leguminous crops, fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil and increase the natural fertility of soil. Hence, pulses are usually rotated with other crops to maintain or restore soil fertility.

Question 4(c)

(i) Why are pulses grown as rotational crops?

(ii) Explain why India is the largest consumer of pulses.

Answer

(i) Pulses are grown as rotational crops as pulses being leguminous crops, fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil and increase the natural fertility of soil.

(ii) India is the largest consumer of pulses because pulses form a very important part of the Indian diet, especially for those who consume starchy vegetarian diet. This is because pulses provide vegetable protein.

Question 4(d)

State three methods of growing rice.

Answer

Three methods of growing rice are-

  1. The dry method of cultivation
  2. The puddled or wet method
  3. Transplanting method

Question 5(a)

What are millets?

Answer

The term 'millets' refers to a number of inferior grains like jowar, bajra and ragi, which serve as food grains for the poorer sections of the society.

Question 5(b)

Why are millets referred to as 'food grains of the poor'?

Answer

Millets are known as 'food grains of the poor' because these are coarse grains. Further, these do not require adequate water and can be grown in infertile soil owing to its rocky or sandy character.

Question 5(c)

Why are millets known as dry crops?

Answer

Millets are known as dry crops because they have a very short growing season and they can be grown under dry and high temperature conditions. Also, millets do not need rain or water and can survive in drought and other extreme conditions.

Question 5(d)

In what way are the millets different from rice?

Answer

Rice requires high temperature with adequate water for irrigation while millets can be grown on infertile soil and does not require much water for growth.

Millets have a higher nutritional value than rice.

Question 6(a)

In which region is ragi grown in India? Why?

Answer

Karnataka is the leading producer of ragi in the country followed by Tamil Nadu, Uttarakhand, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Jharkhand, Rajasthan and Gujarat.

Ragi is grown in these states as the red, light black and sandy loams in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and the well drained alluvial loams of Uttarakhand, Jharkhand and Gujarat are suitable for the cultivation of ragi. Also, the climatic conditions favour the cultivation of this crop.

Question 6(b)

In which part of the year is wheat grown in India? Why?

Answer

Wheat is a rabi crop and mostly grown during the cold weather season. It is usually sown in October and continues till the mid of November. It is harvested by the end of January in the south, and by March-April in the north.

It is so because wheat grows best in cool moist climate and ripens in warm, dry climate.

Question 6(c)

Why is wheat not grown in the eastern and in the extreme southern parts of India? Name the state that is the largest producer of wheat.

Answer

Wheat is not grown in the eastern and in the extreme southern parts of India because the temperature required at the time of sowing wheat is 10-15°C which is not possible in these regions.

Also, wheat grows best in well drained loams and clay loam whereas the southern and eastern India have laterite and red soil.

Question 6(d)

Which is a useful 'rotation crop'? Give reasons to support your answer.

Answer

Pulses are useful rotation crops as pulses being leguminous crops, fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil and increase the natural fertility of soil.

Question 7

Study the picture given below and answer the following questions:

Study the picture and answer the questions. Name the crop which is being planted. Give one benefit of this method of planting this crop. Name the other method of planting the crop. In which area is this method practised? Mention the climatic conditions which favour the cultivation of the crop being planted. Agriculture - II: Food Crops, Total Geography Morning Star Class 10 Solutions.

(a) Name the crop which is being planted. Give one benefit of this method of planting this crop.

(b) Name the other method of planting the crop. In which area is this method practised?

(c) Mention the climatic conditions which favour the cultivation of the crop being planted.

Answer

(a) Rice is being planted. A benefit of this method of plantation is that this method gives higher yield.

(b) Another method of planting the crop is drilling method. It is practised in Peninsular India.

(c) The climatic conditions suitable for the cultivation of rice are-

  1. Rice grows best in warm and humid areas. The critical mean temperature for flowering and fertilisation ranges from 16°C to 20°C whereas during ripening, the range is from 18°C to 32°C.
  2. Rice requires good rainfall in the range of 150 to 300 cm.

Question 7(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Rice is not the main crop in the Deccan Plateau.

(ii) Punjab is the largest producer of rice despite deficient rainfall.

(iii) Wheat grows well in loamy soil.

Answer

(i) Rice is not the main crop in the Deccan Plateau because the soil required for rice cultivation is clayey or loamy soil while deccan plateau has black soil. Also, rice requires adequate water for irrigation and this region falls in the rain shadow region of the western ghats.

(ii) Punjab is the largest producer of rice despite deficient rainfall because here, 97% of the rice area is irrigated and due to higher input of High Yielding Variety seeds, fertilisers and mechanisation the per hectare yield is the highest.

(iii) Wheat grows well in loamy soil because loamy soil is a mixture of sand, silt and clay which provides ideal nutrition for wheat. The fertile, well-drained loamy soil allows for rapid absorption of water and air by plant roots, which encourages growth of the wheat plant.

Chapter 16

Agriculture — III: Cash Crops (1)

Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star


Answer the following questions

Question 1(a)

Name one state in North and one in South India where sugarcane is grown extensively.

Answer

In North India, sugarcane is grown extensively in Uttar Pradesh and in South India, sugarcane is grown extensively in Tamil Nadu.

Question 1(b)

Why is the sugarcane production increasing in Maharashtra?

Answer

Sugarcane production is increasing in Maharashtra because Maharashtra has a longer harvesting season and better quality of crop owing to the favourable maritime climate free from the effects of summer loo and winter frost, sufficient irrigation and new farming techniques.

Question 1(c)

Explain briefly the Sett method of planting sugarcane.

Answer

In Sett method, new canes are usually planted by taking cuttings from the old plants. These cuttings, known as setts, quickly become established and after a few days buds sprout to form new stalks. Four to five stalks grow from each cutting. The sugarcane takes anything from 8 months to a year to mature.

Question 1(d)

What is Ratooning? State two advantages of Ratooning.

Answer

Ratooning is a method of cultivation of sugarcane. In this method, during the first harvest, the sugarcane is cut leaving a little bit of the stalk in the soil with the roots. The stalk soon puts out new shoots or ratoons. The second or any other successive crop obtained from the roots of the leftover crop is called ratoon.

Two advantages of ratooning are-

  1. Crop need not be planted again, it saves labour.
  2. The ratoon matures early.

Question 2(a)

How does heavy rainfall affect the quality of sugarcane?

Answer

Heavy rainfall affects the quality of sugarcane adversely as the sucrose content decreases if heavy rains continue for long.

Question 2(b)

Why does the cultivation of sugarcane require cheap labour?

Answer

The cultivation of sugarcane requires plenty of cheap labour as most of the work is done by hand. The crop is cut by hand using a long curved knife.

Question 2(c)

Why do the stalks of sugarcane need to be cut as near as possible to the ground?

Answer

The stalks of sugarcane need to be cut as near as possible to the ground because the greatest accumulation of sucrose is in the base of the stem.

Question 2(d)

State any three problems faced by sugarcane cultivators.

Answer

Three problems faced by sugarcane cultivators are-

  1. Sugarcane is a soil exhausting crop and therefore, the cost of fertilizers increases the cost of production.
  2. It requires high input of irrigation means.
  3. The cost of transport increases the cost of production.

Question 3(a)

What extra care needs to be taken for soil health when sugarcane is cultivated?

Answer

Extra care needs to be taken for soil health when sugarcane is cultivated because sugarcane exhausts the fertility of the soil. Hence, the soil is supplemented with manures and nitrogenous fertilizers.

Question 3(b)

Mention the climate that is suitable for sugarcane cultivation.

Answer

The climate that is suitable for sugarcane cultivation is as follows-

  1. Temperature — Sugarcane grows best in areas with 20°C to 26°C temperature. Frost is fatal for the crop. Short cool dry winter season during ripening and harvesting is ideal.
  2. Rainfall — Sugarcane grows well in tropical regions with 100-150 cm of rainfall well distributed throughout the year. Irrigation is necessary in areas with lower rainfall or even in areas of higher rainfall during the long dry spells.

Question 3(c)

What advantage does South India have over the North with reference to sugarcane cultivation?

Answer

South India has a higher yield per hectare of sugarcane because of a longer harvesting season and better quality of crop owing to the favourable maritime climate free from the effects of summer loo and winter frost, sufficient irrigation and new farming techniques.

Question 3(d)

Mention two different ways in which sugarcane is propagated.

Answer

Two different ways in which sugarcane is propagated are-

  1. Sett method
  2. Ratooning

Question 4(a)

What conditions of temperature and rainfall favour the growth of groundnut?

Answer

The climatic conditions that favour the growth of groundnut are-

  1. Temperature — Groundnut requires about 20°C to 25°C temperature. Dry weather is needed during the time of ripening.
  2. Rainfall — It requires light to moderate rainfall between 50 to 100 cm. Rainfall should be well distributed.

Question 4(b)

Which two states in India are the leading producers of groundnut? Why is groundnut mostly grown in Peninsular India?

Answer

Gujarat and Tami Nadu in India are the leading producers of groundnut.

Groundnut is mostly grown in Peninsular India because the red, yellow and black cotton soils of Peninsular India suit it well. Such light soils are essential as the nut ripens in the soil.

Question 4(c)

Give three uses of groundnut.

Answer

Three uses of groundnut are-

  1. It is used for the manufacture of hydrogenated oil.
  2. It is used for making margarine, medical emulsions and soap.
  3. Groundnut oil is used as a cooking medium and the nuts are eaten raw, roasted, salted or sweetened.

Question 4(d)

What is the residue after crushing oilseeds called? Give two of its uses.

Answer

The residue after crushing oilseeds is called oilcake.

Oilcake is used as a fodder for animals and also serves a good manure in the fields.

Question 5(a)

Name any two oilseeds grown in India. Which oilseed is grown as a rainfed crop?

Answer

Two oilseeds grown in India are groundnut and linseed.

Groundnut is grown as a rainfed crop.

Question 5(b)

State the conditions of temperature and rainfall necessary for the growth of mustard.

Answer

The climatic conditions necessary for the growth of mustard are-

  1. Temperature — Mustard grows best in cool climate. Ideal temperature ranges from 10°C to 20°C.
  2. Rainfall — The crop requires rainfall varying between 25 to 40 cm.

Question 5(c)

(i) Which soil type favours the growth of mustard? Name an area where it grows.

(ii) Mention two uses of mustard.

Answer

(i) Mustard can be grown on loams but slightly heavier soils are preferred.

Mustard is widely grown in the Sutlej-Ganga plain.

(ii) Two uses of mustard are-

  1. Its seeds are crushed for edible oil.
  2. The oilcake of mustard is an important cattle feed.

Question 5(d)

Mention the climatic conditions necessary to grow soya bean. State two uses of soya bean.

Answer

The climatic conditions necessary to grow soya bean are-

  1. Temperature — Soyabean requires temperature in the range of 13°C to 24°C. Temperature above 13°C is necessary for the normal growth of soyabean.
  2. Rainfall — It grows in regions with 40 cm to 60 cm rainfall. The rainfall should be well distributed throughout the growing season.

Two uses of Soyabean are-

  1. It is eaten as vegetable or made into soya sauce.
  2. Due to its high protein content, it is consumed as soya milk or tofu (cheese) as a substitute for animal protein.

Chapter 17

Agriculture — IV: Cash Crops (2)

Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star


Answer the following questions

Question 1(a)

What are fibre crops? Give two examples of plant fibre crops.

Answer

Fibre crops are crops that are primarily grown for obtaining fibre. The fibre is traditionally used to make paper, cloth, or rope.

Two fibre crops are cotton and jute.

Question 1(b)

What conditions of soil favour the growth of cotton? Why?

Answer

Cotton grows well in the well-drained clayey soils containing lime and phosphates. The deep and medium black soils are considered ideal for cotton cultivation since black soil has a high level of clay and good water holding capacity that makes it suitable for the growth of cotton.

Since cotton crops exhaust the fertility of soil rapidly, regular application of manures and fertilizers to the soil is necessary.

Question 1(c)

(i) Name the two chief cotton-growing areas in India.

(ii) Which climatic conditions favour the cultivation of cotton?

Answer

(i) Two chief cotton-growing areas in India are-

  1. The north western Deccan on the fertile Black cotton soil
  2. The central and southern Deccan of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu

(ii) The climatic conditions that favour the cultivation of cotton are:

  1. Temperature — Cotton requires uniformly high temperatures between 21°C and 30°C. A long growing period of at least 200 frost-free days is required for the plant to mature.
  2. Rainfall — Rainfall should be moderate, ranging between 50 to 75 cm. Sufficient rainfall is required during the early stages of the growth, but a sunny and dry weather is required after flowering.

Question 1(d)

(i) How is frost harmful for the growth of cotton plant?

(ii) Why is dry weather necessary at the time of harvesting cotton?

Answer

(i) The cotton plant is extremely sensitive to frost and late spring or early autumn frosts can kill the plant and destroy the crop. The soil temperature below 20°C reduces root growth thus retarding plant growth.

(ii) Dry weather is necessary at the time of harvesting cotton as rainfall during boll-opening and harvesting periods is harmful for the plants as it makes them vulnerable to pests and diseases.

Question 2(a)

What advantages does Long Staple Cotton have?

Answer

The advantages of Long Staple Cotton is that the longer the cotton fiber, the stronger, softer, and more durable the resulting fabric. Long staple cotton is long, fine and shiny. It is used for making fine and superior quality cloth.

Fabrics made of long-staple cottons fray less, pill less, wrinkle less, and even fade less than fabrics made with their short-staple counterparts.

Question 2(b)

Why Gujarat and Maharashtra are the leading producers of Cotton?

Answer

Gujarat and Maharashtra are the leading producers of Cotton because the moist climate of both the states is well suited for cotton cultivation and the temperature is ideal for the cotton industries as the cotton threads tend to break in dry climate while they rarely break in moist and humid climate.

Question 2(c)

Describe the process or stages in Ginning of Cotton.

Answer

The stages in Ginning of Cotton are-

  1. The cotton first goes through the dryers to reduce moisture content.
  2. Then, it goes through the cleaning equipment to remove foreign matter.
  3. The cotton is then air conveyed to gin stands where its circular saws pull the lint through closely spaced ribs that prevent the seed from passing through.
  4. The lint is removed from the saw teeth by rotating brushes and then compressed into bales.

Question 2(d)

What are the problems associated with the growing of cotton?

Answer

The problems associated with the growing of cotton are-

  1. Lack of financial facility
  2. Shortage of labour
  3. Inadequate water supply
  4. Severity of diseases
  5. Lack of technology
  6. High cost of inputs
  7. Low quality of fertilizers and pesticides
  8. Poor quality of seeds

Question 3(a)

State the soil conditions that favour the growth of jute.

Answer

Jute grows best on the soil enriched by new alluvium brought by river inundation. Loamy soils are most suitable for jute production as the clay particles of loam help to hold the plant nutrients preventing them from getting washed away by water.

The clayey soil gives the heaviest yield. Sandy soils produce coarse fibres.

Question 3(b)

In what way is Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta suitable for jute cultivation?

Answer

Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta has loamy soil which is most suitable for jute production as the clay particles of loam help to hold the plant nutrients preventing them from getting washed away by water.

Question 3(c)

(i) Why is jute retted?

(ii) How is this done?

Answer

(i) Jute is retted because retting softens the outer bark and facilitates the early removal of the fibre within.

(ii) Retting was once done by submerging the jute into ponds and streams but is now done in special tanks. Chemical additives help in the retting operation.

Question 3(d)

Describe briefly the processing of jute.

Answer

Jute is harvested by hand, by pulling up the stem. It is dried and striped of unwanted leaves and is put in water and allowed to rot. This process is known as retting.

Retting was once done by submerging the jute into ponds and streams but is now done in special tanks. Chemical additives help in the retting operation.

The fleshy part of the stem is eventually decomposed and the fibres are then scraped to remove any remaining pieces of soft vegetable matter. After drying, the fibres are loosely spun and woven, and are used in making sacks and bags, carpet, upholstery, etc.

Question 4(a)

Why is mesta an inferior substitute for jute? Where is it grown?

Answer

Mesta is an inferior substitute for jute as the fibre is more coarse and not as strong as jute fibre.

Mesta is cultivated in some parts of Assam, Bihar, Odisha and Kerala.

Question 4(b)

By what other name is jute referred to? Why?

Answer

Jute is also called 'Golden fibre' as it provides huge revenue to the government.

Question 4(c)

(i) Why are floods beneficial for the growth of jute?

(ii) Mention one advantage and one disadvantage of delay in jute harvest.

Answer

(i) Floods are beneficial for the growth of jute because plenty of water is needed for the process of retting and a new soil cover is available.

(ii) One advantage of delay in jute harvest is that it adds to the yield and one disadvantage of delay in jute harvest is that it usually produces coarse fibre.

Question 4(d)

State any three uses of jute.

Answer

Three uses of jute are-

  1. It is used for manufacturing rough quality cloth, sacks and other packaging material.
  2. It is used for making many utility products like carpets, rugs, etc.
  3. It provides a huge revenue to the government.

Question 5(a)

State any two conditions that favour the growth of tea in the Nilgiris.

Answer

Two conditions that favour the growth of tea in the Nilgiris are-

  1. The slopes protect the crop from annual inundations and stagnant water during the rains.
  2. The high altitude provides the required climatic conditions- temperature ranging from 24°C to 30°C and annual rainfall of atleast 150 cm, well distributed throughout the year.

Question 5(b)

State the advantages of growing tea plants on hill slopes.

Answer

Tea plantations require even distribution of water without any water logging. Hill slopes provide proper drainage and prevents water logging problems. This is the reason why tea plantations are usually grown on hill slopes.

Question 5(c)

(i) Name the different varieties of tea grown in India.

(ii) Why is blending necessary for tea?

Answer

(i) The different varieties of tea grown in India are-

  1. Black tea
  2. Green tea
  3. Oolong tea
  4. Brick tea

(ii) Blending is necessary for tea to give it a special aroma and make many proprietary brands.

Question 5(d)

(i) Name the leading producer of tea in India. State two factors that have helped it to become the leading state in tea production.

(ii) Define the following terms:

  1. Clonal Planting
  2. Pruning

Answer

(i) Assam is the leading producer of tea in India.

Two factors that have helped Assam to become the leading state in tea production are-

  1. No stagnant water due to hilly terrain
  2. Availability of cheap labor

(ii) The definitions of Clonal Planting & Pruning are given below:

  1. Clonal Planting — Tea shrubs can be grown in nurseries from cuttings of high yielding varieties. This is known as clonal planting.
  2. Pruning — Pruning means plucking of tea leaves. Frequent pruning encourages the rapid production of fresh leaves and shoots. Pruning of tea bush starts after two years in order to maintain the height and diameter of the plant limited to one metre.

Question 6(a)

Give two climatic factors that favour the cultivation of coffee.

Answer

Two climatic factors that favour the cultivation of coffee are-

  1. Temperature — Coffee plant requires warm climate with temperature ranging from 15°C to 28°C and a moderate supply of moisture.
  2. Rainfall — During the period of growth, the plant requires 150 - 200 cm of annual rainfall.

Question 6(b)

Name the three varieties of coffee plants grown on commercial scale in India. Name one state where coffee is grown extensively.

Answer

The three varieties of coffee plants grown on commercial scale in India are-

  1. Coffee Robusta
  2. Coffee Liberica
  3. Coffee Arabica

Coffee is grown extensively in Karnataka.

Question 6(c)

Describe briefly the Dry Parchment method of processing of coffee.

Answer

In the Dry Parchment method of processing of coffee, the following process is followed-

  1. The harvested cherries are sorted and cleaned to separate the unripe, overripe and damaged cherries and remove dirt, soil, twigs and leaves.
  2. The coffee cherries are then spread out in the sun to dry.
  3. The beans are then fermented by drying in the sun for a week.
  4. After drying, the machines peel off the two layers of inner husks.
  5. They are sorted according to size and quality and then packed in sacks for use.
  6. The beans are roasted at temperatures of about 99°C and then grounded into coffee powder which is used to make beverage. Roasting gives it brown colour and characteristic aroma and taste.

Question 6(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Coffee is grown on the slopes of the hills in Peninsular India.

(ii) Coffee estates have coffee inter-planted with orange trees, cardamom and pepper vines.

(iii) Tea bushes are pruned at regular intervals.

Answer

(i) Coffee is grown on the slopes of the hills in Peninsular India to avoid water logging and to supply even water to the plants. Soils are also fertile in this area with sufficient amount of rainfall of about 150 cm on average, necessary for the growth of coffee plantations.

(ii) Coffee plant is susceptible to direct sunrays. So, Coffee estates have coffee inter-planted with orange trees, cardamom and pepper vines to provide shade to the coffee plant and at the same time generate extra income for the farmers.

(iii) Tea bushes are pruned at regular interval to maintain the height and diameter of the plant limited to one metre. Frequent pruning encourages the rapid production of fresh leaves and shoots.

Chapter 18

Manufacturing Industries (Agro-Based)

Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star


Give the difference between the following

Question 1

Micro Enterprise and Medium Enterprise

Answer

Micro Enterprise

Medium Enterprise

In these enterprises, the investment in plant and machinery or equipment does not exceed one crore rupees.

In these enterprises, the investment in plant and machinery or equipment does not exceed fifty crore rupees.

Annual turnover does not exceed five crore rupees.

Annual turnover does not exceed two hundred and fifty crore rupees.

Question 2

Heavy and Light industries

Answer

Heavy Industries

Light Industries

These industries produce capital goods and consumer durables which are quite bulky.

These industries produce goods which are light in weight like cycles, sewing machines etc.

They require huge capital, large quantity of raw material, scientific knowledge, sophisticated machinery, etc.

They require less capital and less number of workers than the heavy industries.

Question 3

Basic and Secondary industries

Answer

Basic Industries

Secondary Industries

These industries form the core industries on which other industries depend for their manufacturing.

These industries process the basic raw materials into primary goods for direct use by the consumers.

For example, iron and steel industry, petroleum industry.

For example, textiles, sugar, paper making etc.

Answer the following questions

Question 1(a)

What is the difference between Agro-based and Mineral-based industry?

Answer

Agro-based Industry

Mineral-based Industry

This group of industries depends on the raw material produced by the agricultural sector.

These industries use minerals, both metallic and non-metallic, as raw material.

For example- cotton, jute and textile industries, sugar industry, tea industry, coffee industry, etc.

For example- iron and steel, heavy engineering and machine tool, cement, basic and light chemicals, fertilisers, etc.

Question 1(b)

Classify industries on the basis of the nature of products. Give one example of each.

Answer

On the basis of the nature of products, industries can be classified as-

  1. Heavy industries like ship building industry.
  2. Light industries like electronic goods industry.

Question 1(c)

(i) Mention two advantages of setting up a small scale industry.

(ii) Give two points of difference between a public sector and a private sector industry.

Answer

(i) Two advantages of setting up a small scale industry are-

  1. Less capital is required.
  2. These industries make use of indigenous raw material.

(ii) The differences are-

Public Sector
Industry

Private Sector
Industry

These industries are owned and managed by the Central Government or the State Government. They include public utility industries like railways, post & telegraph, oil refineries, heavy engineering industries, defence establishments, etc.

These industries are owned and managed by an individual or group of individuals.

For example, Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL), etc.

For example, Reliance Industries Limited (RIL), Infosys, etc.

Question 1(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Sugar mills are located close to sugarcane growing areas.

(ii) Mumbai is known as the 'Cottonopolis of India'.

(iii) The silk industry has a small market.

Answer

(i) Sugar mills are located close to sugarcane growing areas because sugarcane is a weight losing crop, i.e., its sucrose content goes on decreasing with time. Therefore, it is necessary to crush sugarcane within 24 hours of harvesting.

(ii) Mumbai is known as the 'Cottonpolis of India' because Mumbai has become the most important centre of cotton textile in the country due to reasons like proximity to raw materials, favourable climatic conditions, good transport and port facilities, enough labour force, adequate capital, power and a huge market for cotton textiles.

(iii) The silk industry has a small market because silk industry faces competition from artificial silk which is cheaper and better in quality. Moreover, the changes in prices of raw silk badly affect both the weavers and the silk industry.

Question 2(a)

Name two by-products of the sugar industry. Give one use of each.

Answer

Two by-products of the sugar industry are-

  1. Bagasse, the leftover cane after crushing, is used for producing steam which is used as a source of power for sugar industry.
  2. Press mud is used for making wax, carbon paper and shoe polish.

Question 2(b)

Why is the sugar industry highly dispersed in India?

Answer

The sugar industry is highly dispersed in India because sugarcane is cultivated throughout the country. Hence, sugarcane industries are spread in the country near to the sugarcane fields.

Also, the area under sugarcane cultivation is limited due to the pressure of food crops. Thus, the sugar factories are highly dispersed even in areas which have large percentage of land under sugarcane cultivation.

Question 2(c)

Give three important reasons which have made Maharashtra the leading producer of sugar in India.

Answer

Three important reasons which have made Maharashtra the leading producer of sugar in India are-

  1. The maritime climate of Maharashtra is ideal for the cultivation of sugarcane.
  2. Availability of excellent transport facilities in relation to export markets.
  3. The sugarcane farms are managed by co-operative societies which have access to better facilities like better seeds, fertilisers, irrigation etc.

Question 2(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) India produces very little cane-sugar though it is one of the largest producers of sugarcane in the world.

(ii) Higher output of sugar in South India.

(iii) Sericulture flourishes in Karnataka.

Answer

(i) India produces very little cane sugar though it is one of the largest producer of sugarcane in the world because the quality of sugarcane produced in the country is low. Besides, most people in rural areas prefer to use 'gur' and 'khandasari' instead of white sugar. So much of sugarcane that is grown is used for making 'gur' and 'khandasari'.

(ii) There is higher output of sugar in South India because the yield per hectare is high is southern India. The sucrose content in sugarcane is high in southern India as compared to that in northern India. Moreover, the southern states have installed new mills where productivity is high and cost of production is low.

(iii) Sericulture flourishes in Karnataka because Karnataka has favourable climate for rearing silkworms. Karnataka has established nurseries, silk farms and has licensed seed distributors to promote Sericulture.

Question 3(a)

Mention any two features of the cotton textile industry in India.

Answer

Two features of the cotton textile industry in India are-

  1. Cotton textile industry directly or indirectly supports more than nearly 40% of the country's labour force.
  2. It is the oldest and the largest industry which is found in almost all the states of India.

Question 3(b)

Why have Mumbai and Ahmedabad emerged as the important cotton manufacturing centres?

Answer

Mumbai and Ahmedabad have emerged as the important cotton manufacturing centres because of the following reasons-

  1. Climatic conditions — The humid coastal climate favours the textile making without breaking the thread.
  2. Transport facilities — These states are well connected through rail and road links with cotton growing areas of Maharashtra and Gujarat and also through sea routes with the foreign markets.
  3. Proximity to raw material — The supply of raw cotton for the mills is supplied by the cotton producing areas of the Deccan Plateau that lie close to these mills.
  4. Port Facilities — Good port facilities facilitate import of capital goods, chemicals etc. and the export of finished goods.
  5. Labour — The states have enough labour force from within or nearby states.
  6. Capital — Both the states have easy access to capital and financial resources.
  7. Power — Power is supplied in Mumbai by the Tata Hydroelectric system while Ahmedabad gets its power from Ukai and Kakrapara hydroelectric projects.
  8. Market — There is a huge market for the cotton cloth in these states and in the southern states of the country because of the hot climate which prevails in these areas.

Question 3(c)

State any three problems faced by the cotton industry in India.

Answer

Three problems faced by the cotton industry in India are-

  1. Shortage of Raw Material — There is a shortage of raw material, particularly of long staple cotton.
  2. Shortage of Power — The mills are facing acute shortage of power. This leads to loss of man hours, low productivity and loss in the mills.
  3. Sick Industrial Units — The industry faces constant threat of sickness and consequent closure. These sick units require heavy financial investments for replacement and modernisation purposes.

Question 3(d)

What is sericulture? State any two problems faced by the silk industry.

Answer

Tne rearing of Silkworms for Silk production is known as Sericulture.

Two problems faced by the silk industry are-

  1. Competition from artificial silk which is cheaper and better in quality.
  2. The changes in prices of raw silk badly affect both the weavers and the silk industry.

Question 4(a)

State any two geographical features favourable for setting an industry.

Answer

Two geographical features favourable for setting an industry are-

  1. Raw materials — The location of the industry is guided by the availability of raw material in a particular area.
  2. Transport — Good transport facilities are required to carry raw materials to the manufacturing units and finished products to the market.

Question 4(b)

Name two major silk producing centres in Karnataka and West Bengal.

Answer

Two major silk producing centres in Karnataka are Bengaluru and Mysore.

Two major silk producing centres in West Bengal are Malda and Murshidabad.

Question 4(c)

(i) Name the state having the largest production of non-mulberry silk.

(ii) Name the type of silk available in these states: Assam and Bihar.

Answer

(i) Assam is the largest producer of non-mulberry silk in the country.

(ii) Assam provides non-mulberry silk (tasar, eri and muga). Assam is also the only muga producing region of the country. Bihar provides tasar silk.

Question 4(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Sugarcane is a weight losing commodity.

(ii) Uttar Pradesh has been relegated to second place in terms of sugar production.

(iii) Ahmedabad is known as the 'Manchester of India'.

Answer

(i) Sugarcane is a weight losing commodity because its sucrose content goes on decreasing with time. Therefore, it is necessary to crush sugarcane within 24 hours of harvesting.

(ii) Uttar Pradesh has been relegated to second place in terms of sugar production because of old mills, management and labour problems and shorter crushing period.

(iii) Ahmedabad is known as the 'Manchester of India' because it is the second largest cotton manufacturing city in India.

Mineral Based Industry

Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star


Answer the following questions

Question 1(a)

Which is the largest mineral-based industry in India? Why is it called the backbone of all industries?

Answer

Iron and Steel industry is the largest mineral-based industry in India.

It is called the backbone of all industries because it provides raw material for making industrial machinery, electrical machinery, defence equipment, railway tracks, railway engines, bridges, dams, shops, automobiles, houses and a host of other industrial and consumer goods.

Question 1(b)

What is an integrated steel plant? Give one example.

Answer

An integrated steel plant is the one in which all the processes from providing raw materials, basic fuels, water supply, etc., to the conversion of steel, rolling, etc., are all done at one place.

For example- Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant, Bhilai.

Question 1(c)

State any three factors which affect the location of an integrated steel plant.

Answer

Three factors which affect the location of an integrated steel plant are-

  1. Availability of raw material — Usually the integrated iron and steel plants are located near the source of raw material.
  2. Power supply — Adequate power supply facilities are important for working with various machines.
  3. Labour force — Availability of cheap labour force is also important.

Question 1(d)

(i) How is it advantageous for a mini steel plant to use electric furnaces?

(ii) How is it advantageous for a mini steel plant to be located far from the source of the raw material?

Answer

(i) It is advantageous for a mini steel plant to use electric furnaces because of the following reasons-

  1. Dependency on electric power does not cause pollution.
  2. It conserves coking coal.
  3. Less capital investment is required.

(ii) It is advantageous for a mini steel plant to be located far from the source of the raw material because of the following reasons-

  1. Mini steel plants can be distributed all over the country and cater to the demands of the local market.
  2. They reduce pressure on the large integrated steel plants.
  3. They use scrap iron as raw material which is easily available and is comparatively cheap.

Question 2(a)

Name two major steel plants in the Public Sector. Name one steel plant that was set up with Russian collaboration.

Answer

Two major steel plants in the Public Sector are-

  1. Visakhapatnam Steel Plant, Andhra Pradesh
  2. Rourkela Steel Plant, Odisha

Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant was set up with Russian collaboration.

Question 2(b)

What are mini steel plants?

Answer

Mini Steel plants generally use ferrous scrap, pig iron or sponge iron as their raw material. They work through electric furnaces and have a capacity from 10,000 tonnes to about 5 lakh tonnes per year.

Their period of construction and gestation is also short. They are distributed in different parts of the country particularly in areas away from the integrated steel plants.

Question 2(c)

Mention three factors which have helped Jamshedpur to develop into India's major centre of steel production.

Answer

Three factors which have helped Jamshedpur to develop into India's major centre of steel production are-

  1. Proximity to raw material — Jamshedpur is located close to -
    1. the iron ore deposits in Gurumahisani mines in Mayurbhanj district, Odisha and Noamundi mines in Singhbhum district, Jharkhand
    2. manganese deposits from Joda in Keonjhar district
    3. limestone, dolomite and fire clay from Sundargarh district, Odisha
    4. coal deposits in Jhari and Bokaro coalfields
  2. Cheap Labour — Labour is employed from the densely populated valley of Ganga, mostly from the states of Bihar, West Bengal, Jharkhand, Chattisgarh and Uttar Pradesh.
  3. Transport Facilities — Jamshedpur is well connected with roads and railways to the other parts of the country. Transport is facilitated by the Eastern Railways. It is also connected with the Kolkata port for exporting of finished steel.

Question 2(d)

Name the steel plant located in Andhra Pradesh. What two advantages this steel plant have over the other steel plants in the public sector?

Answer

Visakhapatnam Steel plant is located in Andhra Pradesh.

Two advantages this steel plant has over the other steel plants in the public sector are-

  1. Visakhapatnam Steel Plant is a modern integrated steel plant with the latest technology and some of the largest units.
  2. Visakhapatnam’s modern protected harbour and deep land locked port facilitates import of raw materials and export of finished goods.

Question 3(a)

What are petrochemicals?

Answer

Petrochemicals are important organic chemicals derived from petroleum products, LPG and coal.

Question 3(b)

Why are traditional raw materials being replaced by petrochemical products?

or

Why are petrochemical products growing in popularity?

Answer

Petrochemicals are cost effective, economically stable, cheaper as they are produced on a mass scale. Its raw material is easily available, not dependent on agricultural raw material as in the case of jute. Therefore, raw materials like wood, glass and metals are being replaced by petrochemical products.

Question 3(c)

(i) Name any two products made from petrochemicals.

(ii) Why is a petrochemical industry usually located near an oil refinery?

Answer

(i) Two products made from petrochemicals are-

  1. Plastic sheets
  2. Resins and adhesives for industries

(ii) A petrochemical industry is usually located near an oil refinery which can supply its basic requirements of Naphtha or Ethylene and Benzene.

Question 3(d)

The electronic industry has made an impact on both media and education. Give reasons to support your answer.

Answer

Electronic industry, with mass scale integration process, has produced computers, servers, displays, televisions and cameras, telephones etc. These devices help to capture and broadcast news, advertisements, cinema, educational programs etc., to a large section of the population over the country and overseas, thus changing the life style of the Indian masses.

Various new technologies like smart boards, projectors, video clips, pictures etc., are used to make learning easy and fun for the students. Further, in this Corona crisis, online classes provided to the students by the use of various online applications have helped the students to continue their education from home.

Thus, the electronic industry has made an impact on both media and education.

Question 4(a)

Name two industrial towns which are connected with the production of iron and steel.

Answer

Two industrial towns which are connected with the production of iron and steel are-

  1. Visakhapatnam
  2. Jamshedpur

Question 4(b)

Mini steel plants cause less pollution than integrated steel plants. Give reasons.

Answer

Mini steel plants cause less pollution than integrated steel plants because mini steel plants use electric furnaces while the integrated steel plants use coal to melt iron ore.

Question 4(c)

State the difficulties experienced by the iron and steel industry in India.

Answer

The difficulties experienced by the iron and steel industry in India are-

  1. Capital intensive — Huge amount of capital is required by the iron and steel industry and the plants have a long gestation period.
  2. Obsolete technology — The machinery being used in the iron and steel plants is outdated.
  3. Limited availability of Coking coal — The coal reserves of India are limited. Many steel plants import coking coal.
  4. Sick industrial units — Due to inadequate supply of power and sharp increase in the cost of raw material, many steel plants are experiencing sickness or have been closed down.
  5. Control of Prices — The government has fixed the price for iron and steel which leaves little margin of profit for the manufacturers.
  6. Inefficiently managed public sector — Many public sector plants are facing strikes, lockouts, energy crisis caused by heavy investment on social overheads, poor labour relations, inefficient management and underutilisation of capacity.
  7. Heavy demand — To meet the increasing demand, large quantity of iron and steel has to be imported.

Question 4(d)

Give three reasons why the iron and steel industry is concentrated largely in the Chota Nagpur belt.

Answer

The iron and steel industry is concentrated largely in the Chota Nagpur belt because of the following reasons-

  1. Iron and steel industry requires iron ore, coal, limestone and manganese which are available in close proximity.
  2. Cheap labour is available to the industries from the states of West Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha and Chhattisgarh.
  3. Good network of roads and railway facilitates the movement of raw materials to iron and steel plants.

Chapter 20

Transport

Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star


Answer the following questions

Question 1(a)

Name the types of roads used in India. Which agency is responsible for maintenance of each category separately?

Answer

The types of roads used in India are as follows-

Roads

Agency responsible for maintenance

National Highways

National Highways Authority of India

Expressways

National Highways Authority of India

State Highways

Public Works Department of state/union territory

District roads

Zilla Parishad

Rural roads

Gram Panchayats and National Rural Infrastructure Development Agency

Border roads

Border Road Organisation

Question 1(b)

Name the two major projects developed by NHAI.

Answer

Two major projects developed by NHAI are-

  1. Golden Quadrilateral
  2. North-South and East-West Corridors

Question 1(c)

Transport is the backbone of a country's economy. Give reasons to support your answer.

Answer

Transport is the backbone of a country's economy because of the following reasons-

  1. Transportation helps in the better utilisation of the resources of the backward areas by linking them with the more advanced areas.
  2. It aids in the process of industrialisation and urbanisation.
  3. It removes scarcity of goods during any crisis.
  4. It helps in minimising the effects of natural disasters.
  5. It brings in homogeneity and National integration in thought and culture through easy movement of people and bringing them in contact with each other.

Question 1(d)

Why is road transport in India considered more useful than rail transport? Give reasons to support your answer.

Answer

Road transport in India is considered more useful than rail transport because of the following reasons-

  1. Roads make every village and hamlet reachable.
  2. Construction cost of roads is much lower than that of the railway line.
  3. Roads can be constructed even in the areas of difficult terrain and where railway lines do not exist.
  4. Roads offer door to door service and thereby, reduce the cost of loading and unloading.
  5. The movement of goods is safer through road transport as the chances of pilferage are lesser than in the railways.
  6. Road transport provides link between railway stations and ports and their hinterlands.

Question 2(a)

What is an expressway? Name one expressway.

Answer

Expressways are highways planned for high-speed traffic, having few intersection, limited points of access or exit and a divider between lanes for traffic moving in opposite directions.

They usually have six to eight lanes. There is a controlled access where a vehicle can enter through a limited number of places and no further.

Question 2(b)

Give two points of difference between highways and expressways.

Answer

Highways

Expressways

In case of highways, multiple roads are there which merge with or cross the highways at many places.

In expressway, roads are not multiples. There is a controlled access where a vehicle can enter through a limited place and no further.

Highways may or may not have expressway type facilities like access ramps, lane dividers, telephone booths, CCTV cameras and mobile radars.

Expressways have several facilities like access ramps, lane dividers, telephone booths, CCTV cameras and mobile radars.

Question 2(c)

Give two advantages and one disadvantage of railways.

Answer

Two advantages of railways are-

  1. Railways transport raw materials to the production units and finished goods to the markets.
  2. Railways help in reducing sufferings during natural calamities.

One disadvantage of railways is that rail transport lacks flexibility of routes. Train tracks cannot be laid in every region of the country like in the hilly areas and the remote forested areas.

Question 2(d)

Mention any three problems being faced by the Indian Railways.

Answer

Three problems being faced by the Indian Railways are-

  1. Indian Railways have to play a double role of revenue earning as well as fulfilling the social obligations. This is because the Railways are seen as a commercial organisation on one hand and it is treated as a social organisation on the other hand.
  2. Railway lines are difficult to construct in the hilly and mountainous parts of India.
  3. Obsolete trains, tracks and equipment make railway unsafe.

Question 3(a)

What are National Highways?

Answer

The main roads which are constructed and maintained by the Central Government are known as National Highways. These are main highways running through the length and breadth of the country and are the backbone of road infrastructure.

National Highways in India are designated as NH followed by the State highway numbers.

Question 3(b)

What is the Golden Quadrilateral Project?

Answer

The Golden Quadrilateral is the largest express highway project in India. It connects India's four largest metropolies: Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai and thus, forms a quadrilateral of sorts. Bengaluru, Pune, Ahmedabad and Surat are also served by this network.

Question 3(c)

Give three economic benefits of the Golden Quadrilateral Project.

Answer

Three economic benefits of the Golden Quadrilateral Project are-

  1. This highway interconnects many major cities and ports. It provides an impetus to truck transport throughout India.
  2. It enables the industrial growth of all small towns through which it passes.
  3. It provides vast opportunities for transport of agricultural produce from hinterland to major cities and ports for export.

Question 3(d)

Give three points to explain the role of roads in the economic development of the country.

Answer

The role of roads in the economic development of the country can be understood from the following points-

  1. Roads offer door to door service and thereby, reduce the cost of loading and unloading. Roads also help farmers to move their perishable products quickly to the markets.
  2. National highways and expressways link various important cities and reduce the time of travel and distance between mega cities.
  3. Construction cost of roads is much lower than that of the railway lines and roads connect the fields of raw material to industries and markets.

Question 4(a)

What is the significance of an efficient transport system?

Answer

The significance of an efficient transport system is as follows-

  1. Transportation helps in the better utilisation of the resources of the backward areas by linking them with the more advanced areas.
  2. It aids in the process of industrialisation and urbanisation.
  3. It removes scarcity of goods during any crisis.
  4. It helps in minimising the effects of natural disasters.
  5. It brings in homogeneity and National integration in thought and culture through easy movement of people and bringing them in contact with one another.

Question 4(b)

Name the types of gauges of railways used in India.

Answer

The types of gauges of railways used in India are-

  1. Broad gauge
  2. Metre gauge
  3. Narrow gauge

Question 4(c)

How is the Indian rail network one of the largest and busiest networks in the world?

Answer

The Indian rail network is one of the largest and busiest networks in the world, transporting over 18 million passengers and more than 2 million tonnes of freight daily. It is the world's largest employer, with more than 1.4 million employees. The railways traverse the length and breadth of the country, covering 7,137 stations over a total route length of more than 66,030 kilometres.

Question 4(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Railways bind the economic and cultural life of the country.

(ii) Railways are not common in North-East India.

(iii) North India is better suited for railways and roadways.

Answer

(i) Railways constitute the principal mode of transportation for freight and passengers. It binds the economic life of the country as Indian railways carry a huge variety of goods ranging from mineral ores, fertilizers, petro-chemicals, agricultural produce, iron and steel. Ports and major urban areas have their own freight lines. Thus, railways help in accelerating the development of industry and agriculture, consequently improving the economic conditions in the country.

Further, the railways bind the cultural life of the country as it brings people together from the farthest corners of the country for conducting business, sightseeing, pilgrimage, education etc.

(ii) The north-eastern part of the country is marked with the presence of big rivers, dissected relief, dense forests, frequent floods, landslides and international frontiers, etc. Since it is difficult to lay railway lines in hilly terrains or remote forested areas, railways are not common in North-East India.

(iii) North India is better suited for railways and roadways because north India has level land with a gradual slope due to the presence of northern plains and it is easier to build roads and lay railway tracks when the land is level and devoid of hilly terrain or remote forested areas.

Question 5(a)

Name the regulatory body looking after air transport in India. State any two of its functions.

Answer

The Airports Authority of India is looking after air transport in India.

Two of its functions are-

  1. It provides aeronautical communication services in the country.
  2. It is responsible for creating, upgrading, maintaining and managing civil aviation infrastructure.

Question 5(b)

Discuss the contribution of Air India in the air transport of India.

Answer

Air India provides international service for both passengers and cargo. It is the 16th largest airline in Asia, serving 50 domestic destinations and 39 international routes and serving over 100 cities.

Question 5(c)

List two advantages and one disadvantage of air transport in India.

Answer

Two advantages of air transport in India are-

  1. It is the fastest and comfortable mode of transport. It connects the far flung and remote areas of the country.
  2. The speed and ease with which aeroplanes can cross mountain barriers, sandy deserts, large expanses of water or forests make the air transport indispensible.

One disadvantage of air transport in India is that it is costly.

Question 5(d)

Give two advantages and one disadvantage of helicopter services over aeroplane services.

Answer

Two advantages of helicopter services over aeroplane services are-

  1. Helicopters can hover, land and take off in a vertical position due to its small size. Aeroplanes cannot do that.
  2. Helicopter service provides site-seeing for the tourists and offer a wide variety of services including flying ambulances to hold patients, assistance in loading water to fight giant fires.

One disadvantage of helicopter services over aeroplane services is that the noise and vibration might cause nausea, pain and motor dysfunction in the passengers. The comfort level is less as compared to an aeroplane.

Question 6(a)

Explain why India has an extensive network of waterways.

Answer

India has an extensive network of water ways because it has a long indented coastline. India also have a good network of inland waterways as it has numerous rivers, canals, backwaters and creeks. The river Ganga and Brahmaputra are perennial rivers and hence are also used for inland navigation.

Question 6(b)

Explain the role of oceanic waterways in the transport sector of India's economy.

Answer

Oceanic waterways constitute an important role in the transport sector of India's economy as ocean routes handle 95% of India's foreign trade by volume and about 70% by value. Besides international trade, these routes are also used for transportation between the islands and the rest of the country.

Question 6(c)

Give two advantages and one disadvantage of water transport.

Answer

Two advantages of water transport are-

  1. Inland water transport mode is environment friendly and cost effective mode of transport.
  2. It is most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky material.

One disadvantage of water transport is that it depends on weather conditions.

Question 6(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) The Ganga is navigable from its mouth right upto Allahabad.

(ii) The Peninsular rivers are not ideal for inland water transport.

(iii) Mumbai is a harbour and a port.

Answer

(i) The Ganga is navigable from its mouth right upto Allahabad because of the following reasons-

  1. Ganga is a perennial river fed by monsoon rains in the rainy season and melting of snow on the lofty mountains during dry season.
  2. It is joined by Yamuna, Son, Ramaganga, Gomti, Ghagra, Gandak and Kosi which increase the depth of water in Ganga, which is more than 10 metres up to Allahabad.
  3. The slope of the Ganga is gradual and the river bed is free from stones and silt.

(ii) The Peninsular rivers are not ideal for inland water transport because of the following reasons-

  1. These rivers are seasonal as they are rain-fed.
  2. These rivers are comparatively shorter than the rivers of northern India.
  3. These rivers are marked by a number of waterfalls.

(iii) When natural harbours have all the facilities of ports they serve as ports. Mumbai is a harbour as it is surrounded by land on most sides but has an entrance point to the Arabian sea. It is also a port as it has facilities for loading and unloading of cargo ships as well as buildings and warehouses for storing goods and well built transport system.

Question 7(a)

What are the two prerequisites of waterways to be navigable?

Answer

The two prerequisites of waterways to be navigable are-

  1. Regular flow of water
  2. Appropriate depth in which the craft can sail easily.

Question 7(b)

Give two points of difference between Inland Waterways and Oceanic Waterways.

Answer

Inland waterways

Oceanic waterways

Inland waterways include rivers, canals, backwaters and creeks which are deep enough to allow the ships and boats to navigate safely.

Oceanic waterways include transport along the coast line.

Domestic trade takes place through inland waterways.

Coastal and foreign trade usually takes place through oceanic waterways.

Question 7(c)

(i) Give two points of difference between a Port and a Harbour.

(ii) On which river and between which two places does the National Waterway No.2 lie?

Answer

(i) Two points of difference between a port and a harbour are-

Port

Harbour

Ports are man-made commercial places built along the coastline.

Harbours are natural or created places, connecting a piece of land with a large waterbody, which serves as ports.

The main purpose of ports is loading and unloading of cargo ships.

Harbours are utilised mainly for providing safe parking or anchorage to ships.

(ii) National Waterway No. 2 lies on Brahmaputra river and connects the North-East region with Kolkata and Haldia ports through Bangladesh and Sunderbans waterways.

Question 7(d)

Give a geographical reason for each of the following:

(i) Nearly 70 percent of Indians do not use air transport.

(ii) A well-developed transport network is important for industrial progress.

(iii) Airways are quite useful during natural calamity.

Answer

(i) Nearly 70 percent of Indians do not use air transport because air transport is very costly as compared to roadways and railways, depends on weather conditions and it has high freight rates.

(ii) A well-developed transport network is important for industrial progress because it helps in connecting one part of the country with the other. It facilitates movement of raw material, fuel, machinery etc., to the points of production and finished goods to the points of marking and consumption. Thus, a well developed transport network is essential for industrialisation and urbanisation.

(iii) Airways are quite useful during natural calamity because it can be used to air-lift people from the affected areas and to air-drop food, medicines and other necessary things to calamity affected people.

Chapter 21

Waste Management — I Impact of Waste Accumulation

Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star


Answer the following questions

Question 1(a)

What is waste? Name two sources of waste.

Answer

The term 'waste' refers to any material that is discarded because it has served its purpose and is no longer useful.

Two sources of waste are-

  1. Domestic waste like food leftovers, bits of paper etc.
  2. Industrial waste like paints, sand, fly ash etc.

Question 1(b)

How is the 'use and throw' concept responsible for the increase in waste generation?

Answer

The 'use and throw' concept means to use any product only once and then dispose it.

For example, suppose we purchase a pen. After the ink is finished, we throw it away and buy a new pen instead of buying a refill and reusing the pen. If this example is followed by many people, the amount of waste will definitely increase in volume.

Thus, the 'use and throw' concept is responsible for the increase in waste generation.

Question 1(c)

What is acid rain? State its impact on the environment.

Answer

Acid rain means the presence of excessive acids in rainwater.

Burning of coal, wood and petroleum produce sulphur and nitrogen. These two react with oxygen and are converted into their respective oxides- sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide, which are soluble in water.

During rain, these oxides react with large quantities of water vapour in the atmosphere to form acids like sulphuric acid, sulphurous acid, nitric acid and nitrous acid. These acids, when they precipitate together with rain or snow form acid rain.

Impact of acid rain on the environment are as follows-

  1. Acid rain increases the acidity in the soil and destroys forests and crops.
  2. It corrodes buildings, monuments, statues, bridges, fences and railings.
  3. It poses a serious threat to human health, since it contaminates air and water.
  4. Aquatic species are affected due to acid rain.
  5. Acid rain affects plant growth. Plant leaves get burnt and dry.

Question 1(d)

What is meant by Ozone layer depletion? How is it harmful?

Answer

Ozone layer depletion is the thinning of the ozone layer present in the upper atmosphere. This happens when the chlorine and bromine atoms in the atmosphere come in contact with ozone and destroy the ozone molecules.

It is harmful because the ozone layer absorbs ultraviolet rays of the sun. But depletion of ozone layer allows the ultraviolet rays of the sun to reach the Earth directly without any obstacle or filtration.

Ultraviolet rays can harm the environment in the following ways-

  1. They cause many diseases like skin cancer and cataract.
  2. They can cause genetic disorders which ultimately affect heredity.
  3. They disturb the ecological balance in marine ecosystem.
  4. They can damage physical and chemical properties of any complex chemical substance.

Question 2(a)

What is E-waste? Why is it increasing at a fast rate?

Answer

E-waste or electronic waste refers to various forms of electric and electronic equipment that have ceased to be of any value to its users because they have exhausted their utility value due to redundancy, replacement or breakage.

With advancement in Information Technology, new electronic goods are being produced at a fast rate and this results in an increase in volume of obsolete electronic products. In fact, e-waste is one of the fastest growing waste, constituting more than 5% of all municipal solid waste.

Question 2(b)

Explain briefly how does the industrial waste reach the human beings and affect their health.

Answer

Industries dealing with chemicals, pulp and paper, food processing, etc. produce various kinds of waste material. The smoke coming out from the factories has small particles of dust, carbon, metals, other solids, liquids and radioactive materials which get mixed in smoke and pollute the air.

The burning of sulphur in coal or heavy oil in thermal power plants releases sulphur dioxide in the air. Sulphur dioxide combines with oxygen and water to form sulphuric acid in the atmosphere which is a health hazard. Besides, it produces acid rain.

In winter, smog, a combination of smoke and fog envelopes many cities creating health hazards and traffic problems. Smog is harmful for health as it causes asthma, bronchitis, shortness of breath, eye and nose irritation, etc. It also reduces visibility and leads to problems in traffic movement.

Industrial waste like heavy metals or synthetic organic compounds reach water bodies either through direct discharge or by leaching from waste dumps. Among the heavy metals, cadmium, lead, mercury, copper, chromium etc., get into water.

The industrial waste mixed with water makes it poisonous and unhygienic. It may also cause various diseases in humans and animals, if consumed without treatment.

Question 2(c)

Name two toxic particulate materials. State the effect of each on human health.

Answer

  1. Lead — It affects blood system, causes behavioural disorders and can also cause death.
  2. Nickel — It causes respiratory problems and lung cancer.

Question 2(d)

Give two differences between toxic and non-toxic waste.

Answer

Toxic waste

Non-toxic waste

Toxic waste is non-biodegradable.

Non-toxic waste is biodegradable.

It poses a serious threat to human health and the environment.

It does not pose a serious threat to human health and the environment.

For example, lead, cadmium, mercury etc.

For example, food leftover, fruit and vegetable peelings, bits of paper etc.

Question 3(a)

Explain how eutrophication affects aquatic life.

Answer

Eutrophication is the process of depletion of oxygen from water bodies occurring either naturally or due to human activities.

Under normal conditions, algae and phytoplankton use carbon dioxide, inorganic nitrogen and phosphate from the water as food. They serve as food for the zooplankton, which in turn are eaten by fish.

When nutrients become abundant due to waste accumulation, the growth of phytoplankton and algae increases. They reduce the penetration of oxygen, light and heat into the water body. As a result, the aquatic plants are unable to carry out photosynthesis reducing the content of oxygen in the water. This causes death of most of the aquatic organisms, draining water of all its oxygen.

Question 3(b)

What harm is done by dumping of waste near water bodies?

Answer

Waste dumped near a water source percolates through the soil into the water bodies and contaminates the water. This results in the accumulation of toxic substances in the water bodies and further in the food chain through plants and animals that feed on it.

The contaminated water may cause various water borne diseases like typhoid, cholera etc., if the water is consumed without treatment.

Question 3(c)

What is biomagnification? What can be its effects on humans?

Answer

Biomagnification refers to the increase in the concentration of various toxic substances along the food chain.

Toxic substances at the level of primary producers get concentrated at each trophic level as they move up the food chain. The phenomenon of concentrated toxic deposition at the higher trophic level is known as bio-accumulation.

For example, if there are traces of toxic chemicals in water, then their concentration in algae will be much higher. When fish eat the algae, the concentration of toxins will increase further. Therefore, accumulation of a small amount of toxic chemicals in water can have a serious impact on the fish that live in it. Further, when the fish are consumed by humans and other animals, these toxins can cause various kinds of diseases in them.

Question 3(d)

Give a reason for each of the following:

(i) Marine animals and turtles are found dead in many coastal areas.

(ii) Radioactive waste is more harmful than other waste.

(iii) Uncontrolled burning of waste causes air pollution.

Answer

(i) Marine animals and turtles are found dead in many coastal areas due to plastic debris in the ocean. More than 80% of this plastic comes from land. It washes out from the beaches and streets. It travels through storm drains into streams and rivers. It flies away from landfills into seas. In the ocean, this plastic waste breaks down into smaller pieces, which are easily ingested by marine animals causing blockages in their digestive tracts and eventual death. Marine turtles are more susceptible to the effects of consuming marine debris because they have downward facing spines which prevent the possibility of regurgitation.

(ii) Radioactive waste is more harmful than other waste because radioactive wastes cause pollution and damage the environment and the high level products of nuclear wastes remain in the environment for several hundred years.

(iii) Uncontrolled burning of waste creates smoke and other air pollutants that release toxic substances into the environment and cause air pollution.

Question 4(a)

Name two diseases which occur because of waste accumulation on land.

Answer

Two diseases which occur because of waste accumulation on land are-

  1. Malaria
  2. Dengue

Question 4(b)

Name two common diseases caused as a result of gaseous pollution.

Answer

Two common diseases caused as a result of gaseous pollution are-

  1. Bronchitis
  2. Lung cancer

Question 4(c)

Name three water-borne diseases.

Answer

Three water-borne diseases are-

  1. Diarrhoea
  2. Cholera
  3. Typhoid

Question 4(d)

Explain briefly the need for management of waste.

Answer

The problem with waste is that it remains in our environment. We move waste from one place to another but never get rid of it completely. Nature has recycled waste materials for millions of years. However, human population has increased so rapidly during the last century that the environment is now threatened by our activities and the wastes they produce. Much damage is done to the environment by the pollution of air, degradation of soils and contamination of water sources like rivers, lakes etc.

There is a close connection between the waste, pollution and the damage to the environment. Waste causes pollution, which in turn causes the damage. The dangers posed by global pollution due to accumulation of wastes, threaten the survival of the ecosystem and call for the need to manage waste.

Question 5(a)

Why is the handling of solid wastes a major problem?

Answer

The handling of solid waste is a problem because most disposal methods cause harm to the environment. Both open dumps and landfills may contain toxins that seep into the soil and the water bodies and cause soil and water pollution respectively.

The uncontrolled burning of waste creates smoke and other air pollutants that release toxic substances into the environment and cause air pollution. Scavengers and stray animals invade the open garbage dumps and spread the waste over a large area, thereby, spreading germs and diseases as well as destroying the beauty of the place.

Question 5(b)

Name the gas produced by the decomposition of accumulated waste. Why is this gas harmful?

Answer

Methane gas is gas produced by the decomposition of accumulated waste.

This gas is highly inflammable, and can cause an explosion if not managed properly.

Question 5(c)

What is Global Warming? Name any two Greenhouse Gases?

Answer

The rise in average mean temperature of the earth on account of enhanced concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere is known as global warming.

Two Greenhouse gases are-

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Methane

Question 5(d)

Give a reason for each of the following:

(i) 'Use and throw' concept generates more waste.

(ii) Run off from fields leads to death in adjacent water bodies.

(iii) Birds feeding on agricultural waste are at the brink of extinction.

Answer

(i) 'Use and throw' concept generates more waste because this concepts means to use any product only once and then dispose it. Therefore, after using a product only once, it is neither re-used nor recycled, but disposed once and for all. And since people are using this concept in modern times, the generation of waste is increasing to new levels.

(ii) Run off from fields leads to death in adjacent water bodies because the fertilisers and pesticides used in the fields have chemicals. When they reach the water bodies, the toxins present in the waste can kill aquatic organisms directly by sufficiently changing the pH of water, covering the water surface and causing a reduction in dissolved oxygen. The aquatic organisms may also become victims of bio-magnification and bio-accumulation.

(iii) Birds feeding on agricultural waste are at the brink of extinction because feeding on agricultural waste affects them adversely. Such birds have thinner and weaker egg shells and increased mortality.

hapter 22

Waste Management — II Safe Disposal of Waste

Class 10 - Total Geography Morning Star


Answer the following questions

Question 1(a)

What do you mean by segregation of waste? How does it ensure safe waste disposal?

Answer

Segregation of waste means dividing the waste into different categories like dry and wet or biodegradable and non-biodegradable.

When waste is segregated, there occurs a reduction in the volume of waste that reaches the landfills. Air and water pollution is considerably reduced and it becomes easier to apply different processes of waste disposal like composting, recycling and incineration.

Question 1(b)

What is meant by open dumping of waste? Why is open dumping not considered as an environment friendly method?

Answer

In open dumping, waste materials are dumped in open low lands far away from the city.

This method is not environment friendly as the open pits spoil the sight of the area and become a breeding ground for mosquitoes, flies, insects, etc., that are the carriers of harmful diseases. They give out foul odour. The burning of waste material in the open dumps pollutes the air.

Another danger of open dumping is that rainwater could carry the harmful substances to the nearby streams, ponds or lakes and if the water seeps down it could pollute the groundwater.

Question 1(c)

(i) What is a sanitary landfill?

(ii) How is waste disposed of in a sanitary landfill?

Answer

(i) Sanitary landfill is a way of disposing refuse on land without creating nuisances or hazards to public health and safety. The waste disposal is carried out with minimal environmental damage and in areas already spoiled or in need of restoration.

(ii) In sanitary landfill, the waste undergoes the following five phases for safe disposal-

  1. In the first phase of operation, aerobic bacteria depletes the available oxygen and causes the temperature to rise.
  2. In the second phase, anaerobic conditions get established and lead to the evolution of hydrogen and carbon dioxide.
  3. Phase three establishes population of bacteria and the beginning of methanogenic activity, i.e., production of methane from the decomposition of organic matter.
  4. In the fourth phase, the methanogenic activity becomes stabilised.
  5. The fifth phase depletes the organic matter, and the system returns to aerobic state.

Question 1(d)

Give a reason for each of the following:

(i) Vehicles used for transporting waste should be covered.

(ii) Waste segregation is key to waste management.

(iii) Roads from plastic waste are environment friendly.

Answer

(i) Vehicles used for transporting waste should be covered as this prevents the wastes from being scattered. Waste should not be visible to public, nor exposed to open environment.

(ii) Waste segregation is key to waste management as when waste is segregated, there occurs a reduction in the volume of waste that reaches the landfills. Air and water pollution is considerable reduced and it becomes easier to apply different processes of waste disposal like composting, recycling and incineration.

(iii) Roads from plastic waste are environment friendly because of the following reasons-

  1. It overcomes the growing problem of plastic waste disposal in the country. Since a large amount of plastic waste is required for a small stretch of road, the amount of waste plastic strewn around gets tremendously reduced.
  2. This road construction process is eco-friendly with no toxic gases being released.

Question 2(a)

What is biodegradable waste? Name two useful products which can be made from biodegradable domestic waste.

Answer

Waste which is organic in nature and can be decomposed or broken down by living organisms is called biodegradable waste. For example- stale food, rotten fruits and vegetables etc.

Two useful products which can be made from biodegradable domestic waste are compost and biogas.

Question 2(b)

What service is indirectly done by the rag-pickers for the disposal of waste?

Answer

The poor rag pickers make a living by sorting out reusable and recyclable items from discarded solids. They do a good job by removing much of the waste from the garbage dumps. Pieces of metal, glass, rubber, plastics etc., are removed to be recycled to get finished products. Thus, they segregate the waste and make waste disposal easier.

Question 2(c)

State three steps that should be taken by the municipal authorities for the safe disposal of solid waste.

Answer

The following three steps should be taken by the municipal authorities for the safe disposal of solid waste-

  1. Organising house to house collection of municipal solid wastes.
  2. Biomedical waste and industrial waste should not be mixed with municipal solid waste. The waste should be segregated into biodegradable and non-biodegradable.
  3. Stray animals should not be allowed to move around waste disposal facilities.

Question 2(d)

What is composting? Give two advantages of using compost.

Answer

Composting of waste in an aerobic method of decomposing solid wastes. The organic wastes from households are made to undergo decomposition in such a way that bacteria and other micro-organisms break them down and produce a safe, clean and soil like material called compost.

Two advantages of using compost are-

  1. It enhances soil nutrients and water retention capacity of soil.
  2. It suppresses plant diseases.

Question 3(a)

What are the three R's of waste management?

Answer

The three R's of waste management are-

  1. Reducing the waste
  2. Reusing the waste
  3. Recycling the waste

Question 3(b)

Explain how reusing waste can reduce the burden of waste disposal.

Answer

One way to prevent waste generation, improve our communities, and increase the material well-being of our citizens is to take useful products discarded by those who no longer want or need them and provide them to those who do.

Reusing an item means that it continues to be a valuable, useful, productive item, and replaces new items that would utilize more water, energy, timber, petroleum, and other limited natural resources in their manufacture. For example, instead of discarding old or torn shoes, they can be given to under-privileged or poor people for use.

Hence, if we reuse products, we ultimately avoid the generation of waste and reduce the burden of waste disposal.

Question 3(c)

What is meant by recycling of waste effectively? Give one example.

Answer

Recycling is a process by which wastes are converted into reusable products, thereby reducing the usage of raw material and energy and controlling air, water and soil pollution.

Recycling of waste effectively means to recycle an item till it cannot be recycled further and cannot be utilised any more.

For example, in India, we have tonnes of bagasse from sugarcane during a particular season. Bagasse is used in the manufacture of paper pulp and this helps to save trees which are normally used for making paper pulp.

Question 3(d)

Give a reason for each of the following:

(i) Recycling of waste to produce paper can reduce deforestation.

(ii) Sugarcane waste can be recycled into useful products.

(iii) We should avoid using polythene carry bags.

Answer

(i) Recycling of waste to produce paper can reduce deforestation as in India, we have tonnes of bagasse from sugarcane during a particular season. Bagasse is used in the manufacture of paper pulp and this helps to save trees which are normally used for making paper pulp.

(ii) Bagasse is a waste product from the sugar industry. In India, we have tonnes of bagasse from sugarcane during a particular season. Bagasse is used in the manufacture of paper pulp and this helps to save trees which are normally used for making paper pulp. Bagasse is also used for making packaging material for dairy products. Hence, sugarcane waste can be recycled into useful products.

(iii) We should avoid using polythene carry bags because plastic is non-biodegradable. Plastic has to be incinerated, recycled or buried in landfills. The polythene carry bags are made from recycled plastic. They are harmful because the melting of plastic and plastic products breaks some polymer chains into smaller units which are harmful.

 

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